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Old 10-18-2009, 09:37 PM   #341
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In this case, none of the authors have told us truly what inspired them, so if the answer can only come from the authors then none of us know the answer--which is what I've been saying all along.
No, not at all. You have not been saying what I said . You have said all along that you DON'T know the answer.

I AM TELLING YOU THAT the answer or explanation of the text MUST come from the author of the text unless the AUTHOR is a liar.
In this case the authors have not given such an answer.
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Once you read the Pauline Epistles, the Gospels, the Church writings, Josephus, Philo and Acts of the Apostles it will be easily noticed that the Pauline writer wrote back-dated fiction and was a liar.
It's not easily answered by me.
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The Pauline writer THAT claimed he saw Peter, James, and Jesus AFTER he was raised from the dead, must be a liar. Peter, James and Jesus are all fictitious characters.
You have not yet given any grounds for accepting this conclusion.
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What can you really see?
That you have given no grounds for anybody to accept your conclusions.
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As I said before this is just useless rhetoric.
It doesn't matter how many times you say it. You don't make it true just by saying it.
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What is this? Are you claiming that you don't know why people lie? This is extremely naive.
I am not saying that I don't know why people lie. I am saying that specific lies are told for many different specific motives, of which I know some but probably not all, and that in this case I don't see what the specific motivation is supposed to be.
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Do you think that the Pauline writer would write an Epistle which was canonised in which he confessed that he lied or attemtped to deceive people?
No, I don't think that. Why do you ask?
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Yes, but in this instance the authors have not given us the reasons for their own real-world actions, and we don't know those reasons.
NO, it is not "WE", it is YOU that don't know the reasons.
Whether or not you know the reasons, you have not told us what you think those reasons are, nor given us any grounds for accepting that you are correct about them.
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In the case of Paul, I have deduced that he was a liar and that he wrote the text about the resurrection to deceive.
You have given us no account of the basis from which you made those deductions or the process by which you arrived at them. All you have given us is your unsupported word, and that isn't enough.
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Old 10-18-2009, 09:38 PM   #342
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In the case of Paul, I have deduced that he was a liar and that he wrote the text about the resurrection to deceive.
Yea, I think so to.
I do not find the fact that the two of you are in agreement to be sufficient grounds to conclude that you are correct.
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Old 10-18-2009, 10:33 PM   #343
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After reading up to page nine of this hilarious thread I have to conclude that the only evidence for the existance of Jesus as a real person is the unlikelyhood of an entire religion being founded on a non-existant person.


At first I thought the quotation from the advent web site about there being "many copies of Josephus" was convincing, but then I noticed that the advent seems to be a christian web site of some sort.

And an atheist quoting WLC in order to support his position? Are we going to quote Fox News in order to support some moderate political stance too?

I think Jesus was a historical person but the JM guys hardly deserve to be laughed at.
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Old 10-18-2009, 10:56 PM   #344
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When people write things that are false, it is sometimes because they're lying, but it's sometimes because they're sincerely mistaken, and it's also sometimes because they write with the intention that what they write not be taken as fact.
&
"what he said was not true, but that does not necessarily mean he was lying. In some cases when people say what is not true they are lying and in other cases when people say what is not true they are sincerely mistaken."
So then, explain how 'Paul' could have been simply ' sincerely mistaken' about 'his' own personal account of having personally seen and conversed with Peter, James, and Jesus, AFTER 'Jesus' was raised from the dead?

And how it is that 'Paul' might have been only 'simply sincerely mistaken' in his reporting that the dead and resurrected 'Jesus' was "seen by above five hundred brethren at once;"?
If you are asking how any such thing could even be possible, I can answer. I just want to be clear before I do so that when I describe what is possible I am not making any claim about its degree of probability, still less averring that my description of the possible is certainly what happened. Do you see the distinction?
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ALL of 'Paul's' further theological claims rest upon the virtual truth and accuracy of his reporting of these events and conversations, ones that he alone claims to have seen and to have heard and to have been an actual participant in, and have been the (one, and the ONLY ) reporting first hand witness to.
And whose 'personal' testimony and accounting of is the -one- and the -only- source of these things.
I already know that Paul's theological claims are false, regardless of whether his reports of events are true or not, but that does not prove that his reports of events are false, still less that they are intentional lies.
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No, it will not do, in this instance, to dismiss 'Paul's' written testimony as being the work of one who was only 'simply sincerely mistaken'.
I'm not dismissing anything. I'm arguing for not dismissing possibilities. In other threads I've argued for not dismissing the possibility that Paul was lying. Here I'm arguing for not dismissing the possibility that he was not lying. If you want to dismiss that possibility by saying 'it will not do', I'd like to know why.
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Either what 'he' claims in writings to have 'seen', and to have 'heard' and to have personally and physically participated in, is a factual account.
Or this 'witnesses' personal tale and testimony is a rank fabrication, a knowingly and willfully composed LIE; A willful comprised composition, one deliberately and cleverly crafted with intent to deceive people through the employment of 'false witness' and lies.

Or, that the writer(s) were utterly insane and so can not be held accountable for what insane visions he (or they) wrote.
So you've already admitted one possibility in which the writers could have been writing what was not true without being liars--they might have been mentally ill. I see no grounds for eliminating that possibility.
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But we likewise descend into that insanity, if we are so insane as to give any credence to, and believe these fantastic, false, and insane fables and their insane reasoning's.
The fantastic parts of the texts I don't believe because they're fantastic. That's not enough to establish conclusively that everything in the texts is false, still less that it's all intentional fabrication.
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The explanations are confined to few possibilities.
I would be interested to see you list them.
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Old 10-19-2009, 12:07 AM   #345
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So then, explain how 'Paul' could have been simply ' sincerely mistaken' about 'his' own personal account of having personally seen and conversed with Peter, James, and Jesus, AFTER 'Jesus' was raised from the dead?

And how it is that 'Paul' might have been only 'simply sincerely mistaken' in his reporting that the dead and resurrected 'Jesus' was "seen by above five hundred brethren at once;"?
If you are asking how any such thing could even be possible, I can answer. I just want to be clear before I do so that when I describe what is possible I am not making any claim about its degree of probability, still less averring that my description of the possible is certainly what happened.
I think that it is quite clear above that I did ask.
I am most sincerely interested in what lengths you will need to go to 'explain away' these things.
So please do give us your explanation, we cannot be expected to already know it, or to be at all able to gauge the value of its strengths or its weaknesses, unless, or until, you have actually presented it.
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Old 10-19-2009, 12:54 AM   #346
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..Or he was simply riffing on scripture and others took it the wrong way. Especially those that decided to add their own 2 cents.
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In which century was Paul riffing on scripture?
Perhaps the first, or perhaps the second.

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Are you claiming only Paul had access to scripture?
No.

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The writer called Paul did not see the fictitious characters, Peter, James and Jesus in Hebrew scripture, he must have seen them after the Gospel stories were written.

It was the Pauline writer that later added his two cents.

Who told Paul that Jesus was resurrected after the third day?


Or he never saw them nor claimed that he did.

Perhaps.

A little bird?
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Old 10-19-2009, 01:38 AM   #347
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And I have a question for Paul. How did he recognize or identify Jesus after the resurrection having not seen him before his death?

It is evident that the Pauline writer is a liar.
The text does not say that Paul did recognise or identify him.
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His lies about the resurrection are not even plausible.
I have met people who have told me that Jesus died and came back to life. What they tell me is not plausible, but they are not liars.
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Old 10-19-2009, 02:41 AM   #348
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What is this, the Lord Liar or Lunatic conundrum reborn?

How about: the guy had some powerful hallucinations, possibly drug-induced (not necessarily deliberately - see this thread ). Or even Hypnagogia. There are dozens of possible causes of hallucinations or vivid dreams, or other "mystical experiences", none of which involve lying.

And the resulting stories are his attempts to explain - to himself, first of all - these hallucinations, adapting them into the prevailing theological "styles" of the time.

Personally, I find this to be the most reasonable explanation.
Well, please tell me, what century did Paul use the drugs?

Now, even if he used the drugs in the 1st century, he would still be a liar, since he should have written that he was on drugs when he saw Jesus in a resurrected state.
Not if he didn't know he was on drugs.
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Old 10-19-2009, 07:12 AM   #349
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The body's natural psychadelic "drug" is called serotonin. Increased levels of serotonin (5HT) produce euphoric effects. Most mood enhancing drugs and alcohol, stimulate and/or mimic the function of this neurotransmitter. This is why many manics appear drunk or high even if they don't drink or ingest at all. (Roughly the chemistry behind Jesus turning water into wine).

Jiri
Who was drunk? Jesus or the author of gJohn?
Assume - and it is a safe assumption - that all the ecstatic visionaries, and that would include Jesus if he was one, are drunk just on plain water at one time or another.

Jiri
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Old 10-19-2009, 07:50 AM   #350
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Well, please tell me, what century did Paul use the drugs?

Now, even if he used the drugs in the 1st century, he would still be a liar, since he should have written that he was on drugs when he saw Jesus in a resurrected state.
Not if he didn't know he was on drugs.
J-D, I asked you in post #345 just above to provide us with your 'explanation' of how Paul could make the claim of having traveled to Jerusalem AFTER the Resurrection, and there to have conversed with Peter, James, and John and recieved "the right hands of fellowship; from them, "(Gal 2:9) when the arguments he presents within his epistles indicate that he was woefully ignorant of the contents of the Apostolic Gospels, sayings and acts which, according to the Gospel accounts, were well known to all of the Disciples.

Now, just to be clear on this point, Do you believe that these claimed face to face to face meetings with The "Pillar" Jerusalem Apostles actually took place?

Or is it your 'explanation' as you suggest above, that these meetings did NOT actually take place, but were the product of drug-induced 'visions'?

I only ask this again, as you have not been particularly forthcoming with that "answer" that you claim to be able to present.

Does your 'answer' and 'explanation' for 'Paul's' claims consist of a theory that he 'experienced' these things only within his head, under the influence of drugs?
I just want you to clarify if this is the 'answer', and the 'explanation' that is the gist of your opposition.
If it is, then we can move forward with an examination of the pluses and minuses of this 'drug' theory of the NTs composition.

Note, I am NOT rejecting it out of hand, but I AM asking you to clarify your position, and exactly what it is that you are suggesting, as I do not wish to engage in a protracted debate as to whether "Paul's" tale of meeting with The Pillars was drug induced vision, only to have you switch back to a claim that these meetings, and the claimed 'agreements' and 'arrangements' actually took place as described within the texts.

Do you, or do you not, believe that 'Paul' actually met with, and made agreements with The Pillars?
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