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Old 02-04-2010, 10:55 PM   #11
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Jerusalem is the literal city that God chose to place his name in honor of David the King, who was "a man after Gods own heart." (OT) Jerusalem was the ancient Salem by which Melchizedek was King and Priest.

David ran out the Jebusites and claimed victory, but it may have been Solomon, Davids son, who set up the throne of God in the building of the first temple.
Sorry, what Temple? Who are David and Solomon?
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Old 02-04-2010, 11:34 PM   #12
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..Romans 11 is all about Paul, not Jesus. The deliverer referred to is Paul, who claims to be Jewish. It seems to me he is setting himself up to deliver the Jews after he delivers the gentiles.
Romans 11 is not about the Pauline writer, it is about the salvation of Israel and the very first line in Romans 11.26 clearly show such to be the case.

Romans 11.26
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[b And so all Israel shall be saved...[/b]
And even earlier the Pauline writer refers allegorically to the Jews and Gentiles as "branches of a tree."
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Old 02-05-2010, 08:51 AM   #13
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But did Paul think Jesus came from Jerusalem?
For anyone who just wants a proof text that he did, Romans 11:26 works pretty well.

When you consider that passage in light of everything else Paul wrote about Jesus, it strikes me as a bit of a reach.
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Old 02-05-2010, 09:57 AM   #14
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A midwife leaving a hospital?
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Old 02-05-2010, 09:37 PM   #15
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But did Paul think Jesus came from Jerusalem?
For anyone who just wants a proof text that he did, Romans 11:26 works pretty well.

When you consider that passage in light of everything else Paul wrote about Jesus, it strikes me as a bit of a reach.
Immediately prior to vs 26, Paul states that all of Israel will be saved *after* the full number of gentiles has been delivered. Assuming Jesus is in Paul's past rather than future, the deliverer referred to can not possibly be Jesus.

The deliverer of vs 26 is clearly Paul himself.
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Old 02-06-2010, 08:49 AM   #16
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For anyone who just wants a proof text that he did, Romans 11:26 works pretty well.

When you consider that passage in light of everything else Paul wrote about Jesus, it strikes me as a bit of a reach.
Immediately prior to vs 26, Paul states that all of Israel will be saved *after* the full number of gentiles has been delivered. Assuming Jesus is in Paul's past rather than future, the deliverer referred to can not possibly be Jesus.

The deliverer of vs 26 is clearly Paul himself.
The Epistle called Romans is about an entity called Jesus Christ the Lord and Saviour Son of God who was crucified, and raised from the dead.

The Pauline writers did not regard themselves as Saviours of Israel.
Romans 11.26 is just a repeat of assumed prophecy from Isaiah 59.20-21.

And how can Jesus be only in the Pauline writers past when he claimed to have revelations from the very Jesus and that his gospel was from Jesus who was raised from the dead?

The Pauline writer has established since the very first chapter of Romans that his Epistle was about Jesus, the Son of God, by the resurrection.
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