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11-15-2009, 11:10 AM | #111 | ||||
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1. The referent of ὑπόδειγμα in Heb 8:5 and of ἀντίτυπος in Heb 9:24 is not "human beings". So neither text epressses the idea you say is to be found there. 2. The words ὑπόδειγμα and ἀντίτυπος do not appear in the Greek text of the passage from the Timaeus that you quoted (37c,d): [37ξ] ὅταν δὲ αὖ περὶ τὸ λογιστικὸν ᾖ καὶ ὁ τοῦ ταὐτοῦ κύκλος εὔτροχος ὢν αὐτὰ μηνύσῃ, νοῦς ἐπιστήμη τε ἐξ ἀνάγκης ἀποτελεῖται: τούτω δὲ ἐν ᾧ τῶν ὄντων ἐγγίγνεσθον, ἄν ποτέ τις αὐτὸ ἄλλο πλὴν ψυχὴν εἴπῃ, πᾶν μᾶλλον ἢ τἀληθὲς ἐρεῖ.3. You are doing you exegesis of a Greek text on the basis of an English translation of it, and therefore asserting parallels based upon similarities in translations of those texts rather than on anything that actually appears in the texts you claim your perceived parallels are to be found. 4. Others, including Jowett himslef (cf. how he translates these passages in the Hamilton edition of Plato's Dialogues), have indicated that the English text of the Timaeus that you claim is illustrative of what you claim is expressed in Hebrews does not bear te wight you put upon it. Here's W.R.M. Lamb's Loeb rendering:
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6. ὑπόδειγμα means the precisely the opposite of "copy" --. It denotes something to be copied So your claim about how ὑπόδειγμα shows Hebrews to be Platonic is as dubious as it is founded on sloppy and methodologically unsound scholarship. Jeffrey |
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11-15-2009, 01:09 PM | #112 | |
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But you just toddle along in your serene confidence about the presocratics Jeffrey, I would expect no less from you. (Btw, if the Golden Sufi business sets your delicate sensibilities all aflutter, try the Clarendon Press book.) |
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11-15-2009, 02:45 PM | #113 | ||
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Read it again Jeffrey... |
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11-15-2009, 10:27 PM | #114 | ||||||||||
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Thank you very much. Quote:
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Jiri |
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11-16-2009, 05:24 AM | #115 | ||
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No it's not, since, as in 8:5, the subject of 9:23 is not a human being. Moreover, ὑπόδειγμα does not mean "copy" there.
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Jeffrey |
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11-16-2009, 10:49 AM | #116 | |||
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I have said, and I repeat, I am not the expert who first stumbled on the apparent closeness between Platonic ideas and Hebrews. I placed no "weight" on this connection , in fact I tried to talk Clive out of overplaying the Platonic card (in #92). I simply pointed out that there is similarity (whether intentional or not, I am indifferent) between the ideas of Timaeus and Hebrews. If you want an expert who believes there's influence of Plato on Hebrews, I can give you a recent title H.W.Attridge mentions just so you are liberated from the notion that these ideas flourish only among the phoney, the ignorant and the unwashed. Quote:
Jiri |
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11-16-2009, 12:50 PM | #117 |
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*gets popcorn*
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11-16-2009, 01:23 PM | #118 | |||||||||
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I don't see anything from you before or after that sentence which speaks of you -- or anyone - as the first (or not) to have "stumbled on the apparent closeness between Platonic ideas and Hebrews.". Quote:
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As to Attridge, here's two passage from his Hebrews commentary that call your claim, and your grasp of what he says, about Platonic influence into question:
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In the meantime, perhaps you'd take some time to digest the following from Koester:
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As to an academically acceptable translation, see those given by Tyndale, in Rheims, in the AV, in the JB and by Barclay that Hurst, Danker, Liddel and Scott, Koester, Blumenthal; Amsler, Katz, Eltester, Ellingworth, and Lee note as correct Jeffrey |
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11-16-2009, 02:25 PM | #119 |
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I knew you could do it Jeffrey!
thanks |
11-16-2009, 02:33 PM | #120 |
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