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Old 11-15-2009, 11:10 AM   #111
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Gnostic_Paul

There would seem to be an agenda to deny what I understand as obvious - the cultural habit of splitting the world into a real perfect heaven, stating that our lives now are somehow unreal - Plato's cave, Paul's glass darkly, Hebrew's heavenly temple.
The perfect heaven comes from the heights of the ecstatic experience. It is like that; the inner light comes but then it goes and the mystic becomes depressed when he descends back into the cave.

BTW, the idea of humans in Hebrews as copy (ὑπόδειγμα, Heb 8:5, ἀντίτυπος, Heb 9:24) of the heavenly things / abode in being Platonic, here is a quote from Timaeus:
Several things:

1. The referent of ὑπόδειγμα in Heb 8:5 and of ἀντίτυπος in Heb 9:24 is not "human beings". So neither text epressses the idea you say is to be found there.

2. The words ὑπόδειγμα and ἀντίτυπος do not appear in the Greek text of the passage from the Timaeus that you quoted (37c,d):
[37ξ] ὅταν δὲ αὖ περὶ τὸ λογιστικὸν ᾖ καὶ ὁ τοῦ ταὐτοῦ κύκλος εὔτροχος ὢν αὐτὰ μηνύσῃ, νοῦς ἐπιστήμη τε ἐξ ἀνάγκης ἀποτελεῖται: τούτω δὲ ἐν ᾧ τῶν ὄντων ἐγγίγνεσθον, ἄν ποτέ τις αὐτὸ ἄλλο πλὴν ψυχὴν εἴπῃ, πᾶν μᾶλλον ἢ τἀληθὲς ἐρεῖ.

ὡς δὲ κινηθὲν αὐτὸ καὶ ζῶν ἐνόησεν τῶν ἀιδίων θεῶν γεγονὸς ἄγαλμα ὁ γεννήσας πατήρ, ἠγάσθη τε καὶ εὐφρανθεὶς ἔτι δὴ μᾶλλον ὅμοιον πρὸς τὸ παράδειγμα ἐπενόησεν ἀπεργάσασθαι.

[37δ] καθάπερ οὖν αὐτὸ τυγχάνει ζῷον ἀίδιον ὄν, καὶ τόδε τὸ πᾶν οὕτως εἰς δύναμιν ἐπεχείρησε τοιοῦτον ἀποτελεῖν. ἡ μὲν οὖν τοῦ ζῴου φύσις ἐτύγχανεν οὖσα αἰώνιος, καὶ τοῦτο μὲν δὴ τῷ γεννητῷ παντελῶς προσάπτειν οὐκ ἦν δυνατόν: εἰκὼ δ᾽ ἐπενόει κινητόν τινα αἰῶνος ποιῆσαι, καὶ διακοσμῶν ἅμα οὐρανὸν ποιεῖ μένοντος αἰῶνος ἐν ἑνὶ κατ᾽ ἀριθμὸν ἰοῦσαν αἰώνιον εἰκόνα, τοῦτον ὃν δὴ χρόνον ὠνομάκαμεν.
3. You are doing you exegesis of a Greek text on the basis of an English translation of it, and therefore asserting parallels based upon similarities in translations of those texts rather than on anything that actually appears in the texts you claim your perceived parallels are to be found.

4. Others, including Jowett himslef (cf. how he translates these passages in the Hamilton edition of Plato's Dialogues), have indicated that the English text of the Timaeus that you claim is illustrative of what you claim is expressed in Hebrews does not bear te wight you put upon it. Here's W.R.M. Lamb's Loeb rendering:
Quote:
[37c]And when the Father that engendered it perceived it in motion and alive, a thing of joy to the eternal gods, He too rejoiced; and being well-pleased He designed to make it resemble its Model
Quote:
[37d] still more closely. Accordingly, seeing that that Model is an eternal Living Creature, He set about making this Universe, so far as He could, of a like kind. But inasmuch as the nature of the Living Creature was eternal, this quality it was impossible to attach in its entirety to what is generated; wherefore He planned to make a movable image of Eternity, and, as He set in order the Heaven, of that Eternity which abides in unity He made an eternal image, moving according to number, even that which we have named Time.
5. The words Plato uses for "copy" are μῑμημα and εἰκών


6. ὑπόδειγμα means the precisely the opposite of "copy" --. It denotes something to be copied

(cf. Apollon.Cit.2, 3 συγκρίδεις ἀρχιτεκτόνων γέγοναν μεθʼ ὑποδειγμάτων SEG33.1040 (Cyme); Plb.3.17.8; Lxx Si.44.16, Lxx Ez.42.15: in Inscrr;,πρὸς ὑπόδειγμα ἀρετῆς CIG2769, 2774, 2775d (Aphrodisias); καλὸν ὑ. τῆς ἰδίας προαιρέσεως καταβαλλόμενοςBMus.Inscr.925b22 (Branchidae, i b.c.): BGU747 ii 14; 2.Pet.2.6; see also E. Kenneth Lee. "Words Denoting ‘Pattern’ in the New Testament" NTS 8 (1962) 166-173.
So your claim about how ὑπόδειγμα shows Hebrews to be Platonic is as dubious as it is founded on sloppy and methodologically unsound scholarship.

Jeffrey
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Old 11-15-2009, 01:09 PM   #112
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Ah, well since you are so intimately acquainted with those ancient philosophers, perhaps you can point me to the voluminous writings where they discuss these matters in depth?
I will [INDENT](though your request just proves my point that you have little to no direct acquaintance with the surviving fragments of their writings
Well, I don't have Greek, but I did have Kirk & Raven a long time ago, and perhaps my memory deceives me, but I seem to remember that there really isn't a hell of a lot of material there, and most of what we do have is filtered through Aristotelian and probably Epicurean viewpoints and interests.

But you just toddle along in your serene confidence about the presocratics Jeffrey, I would expect no less from you.

(Btw, if the Golden Sufi business sets your delicate sensibilities all aflutter, try the Clarendon Press book.)
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Old 11-15-2009, 02:45 PM   #113
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I agree that the "platonism" of Hebrews may be derived from Paul, but I believe that Paul derived his ideas from Greek philosophy. So, like I said, I agree to a point, but in the end, disagee.

So the answer is no, you haven't read the articles. Now I know how much you can be trusted when you make the claims you do about your familiarity with NT scholarship.

And are you saying not only that you think Paul wrote Hebrews, but that Hurst and other NT scholars do so as well?


Jeffrey

Read it again Jeffrey...
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Old 11-15-2009, 10:27 PM   #114
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The perfect heaven comes from the heights of the ecstatic experience. It is like that; the inner light comes but then it goes and the mystic becomes depressed when he descends back into the cave.

BTW, the idea of humans in Hebrews as copy (ὑπόδειγμα, Heb 8:5, ἀντίτυπος, Heb 9:24) of the heavenly things / abode in being Platonic, here is a quote from Timaeus:
Several things:

1. The referent of ὑπόδειγμα in Heb 8:5 and of ἀντίτυπος in Heb 9:24 is not "human beings". So neither text epressses the idea you say is to be found there.
Ok, ok... so it's 9:23 which in which human beings are copies.

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2. The words ὑπόδειγμα and ἀντίτυπος do not appear in the Greek text of the passage from the Timaeus that you quoted (37c,d):
so what ? Again, you are simply disingenuous in trying to make me the first one who pointed to the parallels.

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3. You are doing you exegesis of a Greek text on the basis of an English translation of it, and therefore asserting parallels based upon similarities in translations of those texts rather than on anything that actually appears in the texts you claim your perceived parallels are to be found.
I am not doing in-depth exegesis: I have simply pointed out that the ideas are similar and they are going to remain similar no matter what textual snake-dance a la Nabokov you will do around it.

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4. Others, including Jowett himslef (cf. how he translates these passages in the Hamilton edition of Plato's Dialogues), have indicated that the English text of the Timaeus that you claim is illustrative of what you claim is expressed in Hebrews does not bear te wight you put upon it. Here's W.R.M. Lamb's Loeb rendering:
Quote:
[37c]And when the Father that engendered it perceived it in motion and alive, a thing of joy to the eternal gods, He too rejoiced; and being well-pleased He designed to make it resemble its Model
Quote:
[37d] still more closely. Accordingly, seeing that that Model is an eternal Living Creature, He set about making this Universe, so far as He could, of a like kind. But inasmuch as the nature of the Living Creature was eternal, this quality it was impossible to attach in its entirety to what is generated; wherefore He planned to make a movable image of Eternity, and, as He set in order the Heaven, of that Eternity which abides in unity He made an eternal image, moving according to number, even that which we have named Time.
so it's not "a copy of an original" but it "resembles the Model"....how about "mimics the paradigm" ?

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5. The words Plato uses for "copy" are μῑμημα and εἰκών

Thank you very much.
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6. ὑπόδειγμα means the precisely the opposite of "copy" --. It denotes something to be copied

(cf. Apollon.Cit.2, 3 συγκρίδεις ἀρχιτεκτόνων γέγοναν μεθʼ ὑποδειγμάτων SEG33.1040 (Cyme); Plb.3.17.8; Lxx Si.44.16, Lxx Ez.42.15: in Inscrr;,πρὸς ὑπόδειγμα ἀρετῆς CIG2769, 2774, 2775d (Aphrodisias); καλὸν ὑ. τῆς ἰδίας προαιρέσεως καταβαλλόμενοςBMus.Inscr.925b22 (Branchidae, i b.c.): BGU747 ii 14; 2.Pet.2.6; see also E. Kenneth Lee. "Words Denoting ‘Pattern’ in the New Testament" NTS 8 (1962) 166-173.
So your claim about how ὑπόδειγμα shows Hebrews to be Platonic is as dubious as it is founded on sloppy and methodologically unsound scholarship.

Jeffrey
And I suppose your suggested translation of Heb 8:5's ὑποδείγματι καὶ σκιᾷ would then be 'the original and shadow' to satisfy the cited authorities. And that would be methodologically sound scholarship. Look, I am no expert in Greek but you it does not take one to see that you are wasting everybody's time including yours.

Jiri
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Old 11-16-2009, 05:24 AM   #115
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Ok, ok... so it's 9:23 which in which human beings are copies.
No it's not, since, as in 8:5, the subject of 9:23 is not a human being. Moreover, ὑπόδειγμα does not mean "copy" there.


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Look, I am no expert in Greek
Then it might be prudent of you to stop posing as one, which you do when you make the sort of claims you do about the meaning of Greek texts and where in other Greek literature we can find their sources and their thematic parallels.

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but you it does not take one to see that you are wasting everybody's time including yours.
And here I thought that exposing the shortcomings in people's claims when those claims are not well founded, is part and parcel of what is supposed to go on here. I mean, that's what we often find you engaged in doing, isn't it? So are you wasting everyone's time when you do it?

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Old 11-16-2009, 10:49 AM   #116
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Look, I am no expert in Greek
Then it might be prudent of you to stop posing as one, which you do when you make the sort of claims you do about the meaning of Greek texts and where in other Greek literature we can find their sources and their thematic parallels.
I am posing, am I, Jeffrey ?

I have said, and I repeat, I am not the expert who first stumbled on the apparent closeness between Platonic ideas and Hebrews. I placed no "weight" on this connection , in fact I tried to talk Clive out of overplaying the Platonic card (in #92). I simply pointed out that there is similarity (whether intentional or not, I am indifferent) between the ideas of Timaeus and Hebrews. If you want an expert who believes there's influence of Plato on Hebrews, I can give you a recent title H.W.Attridge mentions just so you are liberated from the notion that these ideas flourish only among the phoney, the ignorant and the unwashed.

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but you it does not take one to see that you are wasting everybody's time including yours.
And here I thought that exposing the shortcomings in people's claims when those claims are not well founded, is part and parcel of what is supposed to go on here. I mean, that's what we often find you engaged in doing, isn't it? So are you wasting everyone's time when you do it?

Jeffrey
You thought you thought.... Ok, I'll plead guilty if you give me an academically acceptable English translation of Heb 8:5 with ὑπόδειγμα meaning "something to be copied". Fair ?

Jiri
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Old 11-16-2009, 12:50 PM   #117
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*gets popcorn*
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Old 11-16-2009, 01:23 PM   #118
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Then it might be prudent of you to stop posing as one, which you do when you make the sort of claims you do about the meaning of Greek texts and where in other Greek literature we can find their sources and their thematic parallels.
I am posing, am I, Jeffrey ?
As someone whose claims about Greek should be taken seriously, yes, you have.

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I have said, and I repeat, I am not the expert who first stumbled on the apparent closeness between Platonic ideas and Hebrews. I placed no "weight" on this connection
Actually, your claim was (and I quote) "Look, I am no expert in Greek".

I don't see anything from you before or after that sentence which speaks of you -- or anyone - as the first (or not) to have "stumbled on the apparent closeness between Platonic ideas and Hebrews.".

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in fact I tried to talk Clive out of overplaying the Platonic card (in #92). I simply pointed out that there is similarity (whether intentional or not, I am indifferent) between the ideas of Timaeus and Hebrews.
Unfortunately what you pointed out in no way demonstrated your claim.

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If you want an expert who believes there's influence of Plato on Hebrews, I can give you a recent title H.W.Attridge mentions just so you are liberated from the notion that these ideas flourish only among the phoney, the ignorant and the unwashed.
The topic was not the influence of Plato on Hebrews (which is a question begging notion anyway, sinece what "influence" means, and the degree of it's directness, has not been defined). Rather it was how Plato stands as the immediate background of, and major source for, the ontological and cosmological veiwpoint of Hebrews and how the langage of Hebrews is Platonic language.


As to Attridge, here's two passage from his Hebrews commentary that call your claim, and your grasp of what he says, about Platonic influence into question:
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The terminology of participation thus has, at least in this context [Heb 3:1], some of the connotations associated with the Platonic notion that things in the material world of change and decay have their reality by “participation” in an ideal realm.Participation terminology, perhaps reflecting this Platonic usage, also appears in religious contexts—pagan, Jewish, and Christian—to describe the relationship of human beings to the divine.

Participation, however, is used here not as a descriptive, ontological, or epistemological category, but as a moral and religious imperative, and it is contingent upon fidelity.
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Critics have tended to see Hebrews as a Christian heir of one or another Jewish tradition, either the highly assimilated, philosophically oriented Judaism of the Greek-speaking diaspora represented by Philo of Alexandria at one end of the spectrum or the intensely eschatological Judaism represented by the Qumran sectarians at the other. The extreme and simplistic positions positing a direct and exclusive dependence of Hebrews on either Philo or the Essenes have been easily refuted.

For a critical sifting of the theory of Hebrews’ dependence on Philo, especially as espoused by Spicq, see Ronald H. Williamson, Philo and the Epistle to the Hebrews (ALGHJ 4; Leiden: Brill, 1970).
But perhaps I missed where in his commentary he says what you claim he does. So could you point me to these places, please?


In the meantime, perhaps you'd take some time to digest the following from Koester:
Quote:
Hebrews and Platonic writers distinguish what is “true” or “real” from perceptible forms. Plato maintained that people on earth could perceive the visible “shadows” of transcendent realities, but not the realities themselves (Republic 514A–515D). Hebrews uses similar expressions when contrasting the “true” heavenly sanctuary in which Christ ministers with its earthly “shadow” (Heb 8:2, 5) and when calling the Law’s prescriptions for a priesthood and sacrifices the “shadows” of Christ’s ministry (10:1). More complex is Hebrews’ contrast of the heavenly sanctuary with its earthly “antitype” (antitypos, 9:24), since it is not clear that antitypos had Platonic connotations when Hebrews was written. By the third century, Plotinus used antitypos for perceptible reality (Enneads 5.3.6.17), but Plato did not do so, and Philo used it for what is “resistant.” Moreover in 1 Pet 3:21 the word has a temporal rather than a spatial quality: “prefigurement” (Hurst, Epistle, 17–19). Conversely, the terms paradeigma and archetypos, which Plato and Philo use for heavenly patterns, do not appear in Hebrews. Hebrews uses hypodeigma, but for the earthly representation rather than the heavenly archetype (NOTE on 8:5). Moreover, Plato and Philo use “image” (eikōn) for perceptible shadows of immaterial archetypes, but Hebrews uses “image” in the opposite sense (NOTE on 10:1).

Hebrews lacks the Platonic term mimēma (“copy”) and the contrast between the noēta (“intelligible”) and aisthēta (“perceptible”) worlds, but some assume that Hebrews alludes to these distinctions when it says that “from what cannot be seen, that which is seen has come into being” (11:3). However, the sentence actually identifies God’s word rather than archetypes as the unseen source behind the present universe (NOTE on 11:3). Hebrews does correlate a heavenly sanctuary with its earthly representation (8:1–6), but the author shows remarkable fluidity in developing the imagery, so that the Tabernacle sometimes represents earth and heaven, and sometimes stands for two ages (§22 COMMENT).


Hebrews does not clearly distinguish the created heavens from a transcendent heaven. Some have pointed out that Christ has already passed “through” the visible heavens (4:14) so that he is now exalted “above the heavens” (7:26), having entered a sanctuary that is “not of this creation” but beyond it (9:11). This could suggest that Christ is now in transcendent heaven itself (9:24).

Nevertheless, this distinction breaks down as the author refers to those who enjoy eternal life “in the heavens” (12:23), to God’s voice speaking “from the heavens” (12:25), and to “heaven” being shaken along with earth (12:26). Moreover, Hebrews associates heaven with what is undefiled (7:26), yet can also suggest that if the lower realm needs purification, then the higher realm does as well—an idea that sits awkwardly with a Platonic worldview (NOTES on 9:23).

Hebrews says that one relates to what is unseen by faith (11:1). In Platonic thought one relates to the unseen through the “mind” (nous) and the power of reason; faith belongs to a lower order.

Hebrews does not mention the nous but stresses faith in two ways. First, the unseen realities of which the author speaks are made known through divine revelation—including promises, commands, and warnings (e.g., 8:5; 11:7, 8)—and revelation is received by faith. Second, a barrier to the unseen realm comes from a defiled conscience (9:14; 10:29), an idea that has no real counterpart in Platonism. Since the conscience is defiled by human unfaithfulness, cleansing the conscience means evoking faith (§23 COMMENT b). A clean conscience fits God’s promise to write his laws upon the “mind” (dianoia), which is synonymous with the “heart” (8:10; 10:16). Heart and mind do not have so much to do with higher versus lower aspects of human life, or with internal versus external matters, but pertain to obedience that involves the whole self (NOTE on 8:10).


Koester, C. R. (2008). Hebrews: A new translation with introduction and commentary (or via: amazon.co.uk) (98). New Haven; London: Yale University Press.
Quote:
And here I thought that exposing the shortcomings in people's claims when those claims are not well founded, is part and parcel of what is supposed to go on here. I mean, that's what we often find you engaged in doing, isn't it? So are you wasting everyone's time when you do it?

Jeffrey
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You thought you thought.... Ok, I'll plead guilty if you give me an academically acceptable English translation of Heb 8:5 with ὑπόδειγμα meaning "something to be copied". Fair ?
What are you pleading guilty to?

As to an academically acceptable translation, see those given by Tyndale, in Rheims, in the AV, in the JB and by Barclay that Hurst, Danker, Liddel and Scott, Koester, Blumenthal; Amsler, Katz, Eltester, Ellingworth, and Lee note as correct

Jeffrey
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Old 11-16-2009, 02:25 PM   #119
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I knew you could do it Jeffrey!

thanks
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Old 11-16-2009, 02:33 PM   #120
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I knew you could do it Jeffrey!

thanks
How very kind of you to say.

Jeffrey
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