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Old 12-28-2007, 11:57 AM   #141
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Dr. WALKER's vita is ...
You certainly don't have to address my arguments if you don't wish to.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
I did address your arguments, and your response implied that Walker might have deliberately picked a topic to inflame religious passion. I saw no reason to let that stand.
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Old 12-28-2007, 12:29 PM   #142
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Ben.

I looked into the name "Jesus" in Whiston's translation of the works of Josephus (via Bibleworks), and come up with the list that will follow. Generally, at least with this name, he identifies the party by family relationship first, but with a couple exceptions. In War 4.238 and Ant 20.200. In War, I think the person being referred to is Jesus son of Gamala (previously mentioned in 4.160), the "friend" who, along with the younger Ananus, agreed with Josephus' enemies to send a party from Jerusalem to arrest (and presumably execute) him (Life 1.193, 204). If the Jesus of 20.200 be this same Jesus son of Gamalas, the lack of a patronym might be understood as a sign of disfavor on the part of Josephus, as this "friend" had sold him out. He might not have been aware of this when he wrote the War, but pobably knew of his trechery by the time of the writing of Antiquities.
Thanks, David. I scanned through the list, but am unsure which item(s), if any, you were proferring as an example of a patronym suspended until the second (or later) mention of the name. (Lacking a patronym altogether is different than having one but saving it for later.)

Ben.

ETA: I missed your subsequent post the first time through. That is possibly a somewhat analogous case, but there are some issues, the most important of which is that description of a man in terms of his property does not seem quite the same thing as the usual name of father or family.
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Old 12-28-2007, 02:05 PM   #143
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Give me studies which don't stir my many political or religious hatreds.
Wow! That's going to seriously cut down on your reading list!! In fact, I'm curious as to what it leaves available.

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I'm glad that you think so, but I'm afraid that I really hate writing a considered response only for it to be ignored, so this discussion ends here.
Yes, how dare Toto demonstrate that you are, once again, talking out of your hat!! The gall of some people!!!

:rolling:

You are correct, obviously, that some basis must be presented for any particular claim of interpolation but that appears to have no relationship to anyone's argument against the short reference in Josephus. The true question is whether the bases that have been offered are sufficient for the conclusion. spin has pointed out what he considers to be problematic grammatical structure, for example.
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Old 12-28-2007, 05:26 PM   #144
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spin has pointed out what he considers to be problematic grammatical structure, for example.
To be fair, I'll note that Ben C Smith pointed out a problem with the grammatical objections.
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Old 12-28-2007, 06:34 PM   #145
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Vork, a categorical statement that Hegesippus is a 3rd century forgery isn't going to help much. Is this your opinion, or do you have a citation to offer?
Vork doesn't seem to have answered, so I'll give it a go: I think you're confusing Hegesippus and pseudo-Hegesippus. Hegesippus is cited by--let me check--yes, Eusebius, who was fourth-century, so it is 3rd-century at the latest. If you assume that Hegesippus is authentic, it can be dated to the 2nd century--as the Catholic Encyclopedia (1st ed.) says: "The date of Hegesippus is fixed by the statement that the death and apothesis of Antinous were in his own time (130), that he came to Rome under Anicetus (154-7 to 165-8) and wrote in the time of Eleutherus (174-6 to 189-91)"

Pseudo-Hegesippus, on the other hand, is a Latin paraphrase of War of the Jews with some other additions. Its origin remains unclear. However, its author does seem to have used Antiquities to some extent. My guess is the author used War to use the fall of Jerusalem as a moral lesson, but maybe he just thought it was more exciting.

Edited to add: Oh, and pseudo-Hegesippus is dated to the late 4th c.
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Old 12-28-2007, 06:38 PM   #146
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Ken Olson has developed the thesis that the forger of the TF was Eusebius. He has done this by showing that the point made in the TF are particular points that Eusebius stressed - that Jews and Greeks both followed Jesus, that the movement started in an earlier time and had lasted to this day, etc.
Olson's argument is demonstrably faulty, IMO. But please note that this in no way proves that the TF is authentic.

I can run down its faults if there is any demand for it.
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Old 12-28-2007, 06:46 PM   #147
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Ken Olson has developed the thesis that the forger of the TF was Eusebius. He has done this by showing that the point made in the TF are particular points that Eusebius stressed - that Jews and Greeks both followed Jesus, that the movement started in an earlier time and had lasted to this day, etc.
Olson's argument is demonstrably faulty, IMO. But please note that this in no way proves that the TF is authentic.

I can run down its faults if there is any demand for it.
Well, yes, please explain. You can start a new thread if you want.
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Old 12-28-2007, 06:49 PM   #148
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The passage already refers to a Jesus, Damneus, and undoubtedly referred to that Jesus prior to alteration.
Vork, do you have any opinions about how and where Jesus son of Damneus would have been mentioned prior to James? This has been discussed on IIDB before but no one has made any specific suggestions.
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Old 12-28-2007, 08:38 PM   #149
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Olson's argument is demonstrably faulty, IMO. But please note that this in no way proves that the TF is authentic.

I can run down its faults if there is any demand for it.
Well, yes, please explain. You can start a new thread if you want.
Let me qualify that: there's some interesting evidence there that Eusebius at least tampered with the TF. I'm inclined to accept that there was at least some tampering, and Olson IMO makes the best argument for it.
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Old 12-28-2007, 08:59 PM   #150
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For a text produced commercially outside Christian circles for non-Christians, we really do have to stump up some evidence, you know.
Not until it is demonstrated that at no time during the first centuries of the era could Christians have had their own copies of a text.

Maybe I'm missing something that ought to be obvious, but I'm still waiting for someone to show it to me.

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That said, we need to remember that nearly all surviving texts passed through various 'gates', where all subsequent copies were made from one (or perhaps a few) copies.
And who controlled and operated those gates between approximately 400 CE and 1400 CE?

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By default we always believe that texts are transmitted accurately.
The only scholars I have found espousing that notion are evangelical apologists, and even they apply it only to texts that support their dogma. They couldn't care less if someone told them that Plato had been miscopied.
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