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Old 05-10-2007, 07:07 AM   #21
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Two Question, oh OT Answer Man:

1) Are there any sources for OT stories that are as extensive as the source for the Flood tale in the Epic of Gilgamesh.

2) Is there any known source for Lamentations?

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Old 05-13-2007, 06:06 AM   #22
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By the way, I'm not exactly the world's greatest candidate for "OT Answer" man. In fact, the FAQ is defined as...

...the distilled wisdom of IIDB regulars in BC&H...

...therefore, let's get some answers going too!
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Old 05-13-2007, 07:22 PM   #23
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I would start with, "What is the Documentary Hypothesis?" or even, "Who Wrote the Torah / Pentateuch?"
I'll take a stab at "What is the Documentary Hypothesis". Do you envision any particular format for this FAQ, or should we just go free-form with answers initially?

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It's a FAQ, so you can't assume knowledge of stuff like the Documentary Hypothesis; the point is to cover the basics like these, even if the theories behind them may seem outmoded to some.
Gotcha. Thanks for clarifying that. I wasn't certain what level we were working at.

regards,

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Old 05-13-2007, 07:29 PM   #24
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I would definitely encourage freeform answers. Once we have some answers (we currrently have about zero), we can worry about form.
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Old 05-14-2007, 08:15 AM   #25
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Do a "google" on "pseudepigrapha".
That's not what I meant; I tried to refer to those mentioned e.g. in the first paragraph here.
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Old 05-14-2007, 11:42 AM   #26
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Something that always bothered me was that the hebrew bible is supposed to be in hebrew, yet jesus supposedly spoke aramaic.

I don't see how those two can be reconciled unless they really are one and the same.
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Old 05-14-2007, 11:50 AM   #27
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Something that always bothered me was that the hebrew bible is supposed to be in hebrew, yet jesus supposedly spoke aramaic.

I don't see how those two can be reconciled unless they really are one and the same.
I don't understand why. The books were in Latin, but Descartes supposedly spoke French. What is the difficulty?
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Old 05-14-2007, 11:57 AM   #28
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I don't understand why. The books were in Latin, but Descartes supposedly spoke French. What is the difficulty?
Are you saying that hebrew was a "church language" kind of like Latin is with Catholicism? Why then did they discard hebrew for the aramaic?
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Old 05-14-2007, 12:12 PM   #29
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Are you saying that hebrew was a "church language" kind of like Latin is with Catholicism?
Nope, not exactly.

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Why then did they discard hebrew for the aramaic?
My ancestors are from Germany. I don't know German. Within a couple generations the knowledge of German was discarded for English, in Canada and the United States.

Israel was dispersed when conquered by Babylon. The language used by the conquerors was an Aramaic.
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Old 05-14-2007, 12:33 PM   #30
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Israel was dispersed when conquered by Babylon. The language used by the conquerors was an Aramaic.
Didn't the majority of the rural population stay? I thought Ezra et al were upset about things like Asherah icons and the like which had reverted to more polytheistic ways. They didn't return from Babylon and conquer anyone, they just came back and enforced a strict version of the law. Or so I am led to believe. So why did the rural people drop Hebrew for Aramaic? And the hebrew itself, did that disappear until the return of the preists?

You can probably tell i am totally confused here, please don't make fun of me without buying me a beer :grin:
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