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Old 04-09-2004, 10:33 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by joedad
Some of the parallels are bogus and some are not. So I direct the question to both camps.
So you are a taker? Please provide the primary evidence you are comparing with the Gospels.

Thanks
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Old 04-09-2004, 10:43 AM   #12
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Originally Posted by Layman
I believe in discussing the primary evidence and seeing what experts have to say about them.

People who engage in parallelomania seem to find a few quasi-scholars long dead and cite them as establishing what the evidence says. I'd rather see what the evidence has to say for itself, then see what the experts have to say about it.

I will clarify that if they have secondary evidence repeates the contents of the primary evidence, of course I would be interested in that.
I rarely see any primary evidence in your posts and then you almost never go beyond a translation when you lean on a phrase.
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Old 04-09-2004, 10:51 AM   #13
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I rarely see any primary evidence in your posts and then you almost never go beyond a translation when you lean on a phrase.
And the only way you can handle vigorous opposition is by escalating the personally hostility. But I doubt you share my opinion anymore than I do yours.

In any event, the primary evidence has not usually been in dispute when we have disagreed. We know what the texts say (though you tend to misrepresent sources by highly selective parsing), but disagree on their meaning or ramifications. In such cases, the secondary literature can be very helpful.

And yes, I do tend to be suspicious of the contradicted word of long dead scholars who advocate a rare minority perspective (much as you do) against a contemporary majority against them. Thus, I'd like to know what the primary evidence is and what it says.
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Old 04-09-2004, 12:03 PM   #14
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And the only way you can handle vigorous opposition is by escalating the personally hostility. But I doubt you share my opinion anymore than I do yours.
Actually, no personal hostility at all. I don't know you. (This is the festive season, so I'll make that concession of fact.)

Quote:
Originally Posted by Layman
In any event, the primary evidence has not usually been in dispute when we have disagreed. We know what the texts say (though you tend to misrepresent sources by highly selective parsing), but disagree on their meaning or ramifications. In such cases, the secondary literature can be very helpful.

And yes, I do tend to be suspicious of the contradicted word of long dead scholars who advocate a rare minority perspective (much as you do) against a contemporary majority against them. Thus, I'd like to know what the primary evidence is and what it says.
That's right. You aren't interested in what the text actually says, just what your preferred authors (ie the ones which support your a priori positions) say about it. The source you prefer to cite through some translation without showing the ability to deal with the problems not indicated by the translators. (The sorts of problems involve routine mistranslations due to previous commitments and, when one shares the previous commitment, one cannot see the problem.)

And primary evidence is often only secondary in your analyses.


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Old 04-09-2004, 01:51 PM   #15
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You aren't interested in what the text actually says,....
Lie.

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The source you prefer to cite through some translation without showing the ability to deal with the problems not indicated by the translators. (The sorts of problems involve routine mistranslations due to previous commitments and, when one shares the previous commitment, one cannot see the problem.)
I am dependent on translations. But I try and consult as many as I can, as well as secondary literature discussing the merits of those translations when relevant. I am simply unwilling to accept your word that the leading translations on a particular text are wrong.
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Old 04-09-2004, 03:02 PM   #16
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You know, after the Layman / spin debate on Ireneus and Polycarp, you can't imagine how audible my guffaw was when I read Layman demanding that someone site a PRIMARY source. (I can't read greek, latin, or aramaic myself - but I don't demand that of others).
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Old 04-09-2004, 03:15 PM   #17
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You know, after the Layman / spin debate on Ireneus and Polycarp, you can't imagine how audible my guffaw was when I read Layman demanding that someone site a PRIMARY source. (I can't read greek, latin, or aramaic myself - but I don't demand that of others).
If it was not clear, let me make it clear, I don't demand the original language. In fact, a cite to a translation would be preferable.

I cited more primary evidence than Spin did in our discussion on Polycarp. This whole line of attack is silly.
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Old 04-09-2004, 03:32 PM   #18
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So you are a taker? Please provide the primary evidence you are comparing with the Gospels.

Thanks
I'm not presently a taker in that sense. I'm not overly interested in what aspects of a mythology are borrowed or shared. I get the strong impression, however, that you are, and that any christian uniqueness is important to you. I'm assuming that this in turn motivates you to undertake an academic discussion of the subject, perhaps because you believe this uniqueness must confer legitimacy and/or historicity or something else. So, is that the case?
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Old 04-09-2004, 04:17 PM   #19
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Originally Posted by joedad
I'm not presently a taker in that sense. I'm not overly interested in what aspects of a mythology are borrowed or shared. I get the strong impression, however, that you are, and that any christian uniqueness is important to you. I'm assuming that this in turn motivates you to undertake an academic discussion of the subject, perhaps because you believe this uniqueness must confer legitimacy and/or historicity or something else. So, is that the case?
I have not been too interested in the matter b/c I have never seen a serious presentation of the theory. If I did see one, I would be interested.
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Old 04-09-2004, 04:46 PM   #20
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I have not been too interested in the matter b/c I have never seen a serious presentation of the theory. If I did see one, I would be interested.
Well, lets say that while only christian myth claims human parthenogenesis, both christian and mayan myth claim divine ancestry. Though virginity and divine ancestry are common to both mythologies, does christian myth, in your opinion, in any way trump mayan myth merely because mayan myth does not include human parthenogenesis?

I'm hoping you'll answer "no."
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