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Old 02-19-2004, 11:01 AM   #111
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Sounds of SATAN!!!

If it ain't on 8-track GOD did not intend for you to listen to it. . . .

Anyways, think we have dried out this Flood Myth for good?

--J.D.
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Old 02-19-2004, 03:29 PM   #112
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Default Re: Re: Literal translation of the flood myth and the Bible in general

Quote:
Originally posted by spin
Maybe 2 Tim 3:16,

All scripture (is) inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness.


spin
Well, to accept the words of someone who is not God in the first place brings us back to the same point. To begin to understand why the Bible could possibly be considered divinely inspired by God, I think the required starting point would at least be God's own (alleged) words saying such. 1 Timothy 3:16 isn't such an example... and the translation of "Every scripture is inspired by God" has also been translated as "Every scripture is also useful" (with some debate on the parallelism of the adjectives in the sentence, being perhaps "Every scripture is inspired... and useful). There's a lot of room for debate.

I'm continuously curious about this one, because without at least that basic starting point, where's the logic in believing things like the flood are true simply because the Bible said them? I know, there isn't any logic, even if the first words in the Bible were "And God said, "Let there be light, along with everyone understanding that every word in every version of the Bible is my divinely inspired commands and wishes." But I digress.

It seems that in order to support the myriad illogics of the various Bible stories--particularly the flood myth, which is so overloaded with basic violations of not only many sciences but of the laws of physics and mathematics as well--the xians fall back on "Well, it's the divinely inspired word of God and you can't debate it." But where do they get that? Is there ANYWHERE God says anything of the like?

Meanwhile, for divinely inspired word, there sure are a lot of interpretations of it in printed form...

-Indy
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Old 02-19-2004, 09:00 PM   #113
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Default Re: Re: Re: Literal translation of the flood myth and the Bible in general

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Originally posted by Indy
To begin to understand why the Bible could possibly be considered divinely inspired by God, I think the required starting point would at least be God's own (alleged) words saying such.
When I was a fundy, I figured John 1:1 confirmed the accuracy of the Bible:

Quote:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Heck, if the Word was God, then it had to be just as perfect as the Big Man himself.
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Old 02-19-2004, 09:08 PM   #114
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Default Re: Re: Re: Re: Literal translation of the flood myth and the Bible in general

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Originally posted by Postcard73
When I was a fundy, I figured John 1:1 confirmed the accuracy of the Bible:

Heck, if the Word was God, then it had to be just as perfect as the Big Man himself.
Hmm... I always thought that referred to God's words during Creation, such as "Let there be light" and all of that. It didn't seem to indicate that the Bible was all God's divine word.

And again, John wasn't God... I've been browsing an online Bible or two trying to find anything God ever said that indicated that a future collection of works by men was to be considered His divine inspiration--not to mention a theoretically flawless one at that.

-Indy
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Old 02-19-2004, 10:10 PM   #115
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jim Larmore
Then on top of that the established status quo refuses to consider evidence showing man and cretacous animals lived contemporaneously. Human tracks in cretacous sediment along side dinosaur tracks.
I'd like to see you post some citations that document these simultaneous tracks. Such spurious evidence was suggested near my home in Glen Rose, TX, but was quite effectively refuted to be outright fraud and spurious presentations of natural erosional formations.

If you would stoop to using such spurious claims here, why should any of your other statements be accepted as sincere?

Quote:
Originally posted by Jim Larmore
I know some of the claims of extremely slow stratification is bogus , because its been demonstrated time and again that calcium carbonate and many other substrates can and do stratify rapidly. So to say it took millions or billions of years to form some of these sediments is probably not factual.
Again, some citations would be interesting. It seems apparent that you look only for information that reflects your beliefs rather than that which is verifiable. "Probably not factual," is an interesting choice of words. What do you base these probabilities on? While there are calcium carbonate, alluvial, volcanic, and one or two other depositional types that occur with relative rapidity, they are readily and easily identified and have definate characteristics that aren't confused with the slower deposition that makes up the remaining stratigraphic evidence.

Quote:
Originally posted by Jim Larmore
Then theres the polystrate fossils with laminating sedements intersecting at a 90 degree angle or better etc. showing rapid sedimentation. All of these things are just explained away by mainstream science as not consequencial to the established theory.
Hmmm... "polystrate" doesn't appear to be a geologic term that I recognize, perhaps a citation here would clarify but I'll assume that by "poly" you refer to two or more and by "strate" you are referring to strata (the plural of stratum, or layer).

A fossil can quite easily intrude from one stratum to another for a variety of reasons. This is frequently observed with plant fossils, particularly trees, though it is possible for it to occur with vertabrate fossils as well.

In vertabrates, the intrusion is typically the result of a transform (natural or even cultural) by a variety of forces: burrowing animals, plant roots, underground streams, sinkholes, erosion followed by subsequent re-deposition, etc.

In plants, the same can be true as for vertabrates, but you also get an effect where a plant, such as a tree, can stand vertical while deposition occurs. The deposition is usually that of calcium carbonate, alluvial deposits, volcanic deposition, and other quicker depositional forces.

And, yes, these stratigraphic transforms can be explained. Moreover, they can even be predicted! But I assure you, they are very consequencial and are closely examined in attempting to establish provenience and context for an artifact or fossil.
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Old 02-19-2004, 10:12 PM   #116
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And here I thought Jn 1:14 ("And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.") went on to establish that the Word was Jesus...

You know, that brings up a question I have:

How does this tie in with when Jesus said (in Mt 5:17) that he came to 'fulfill' the Law and the Prophets (which, as ye may well know, was reference to what later was aka the OT)?

I've read that it meant that J.C.:
1) came to 'keep all the Laws of Moses' (so that he might be the perfect sacrifice) and
2) 'fulfill' the 'empty words' of the prophecies re: the Jewish Messiah; or
3) came to 'complete' the revelations of God, hereafter aka the Bible, (with his gospels and revelations thereafter up to John)

...and more; it seems 'Word made flesh' would kinda support all three above, no? Or have I been playing Devil's Advocate for too long...?

edit-- oh, um, yes...this is a Flood thread...uh, so does, like, 'The Word' becoming Jesus mean that the flood became an equally physical reality? Er, yeah..?
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Old 02-20-2004, 02:09 AM   #117
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Quote:
Originally posted by Sensei Meela

edit-- oh, um, yes...this is a Flood thread...uh, so does, like, 'The Word' becoming Jesus mean that the flood became an equally physical reality? Er, yeah..?
Hehehe, nice! I love it!
I don’t know if I am a forum rule prude (tell me if I am), but it seems all this promiscuous engagement in debate of topics other than the one the OP specified are off topic. It seems Sensei Meela might be as prudish as me ; )

So all these challenges from the likes of these mugs (in effect asking “but wheres the scientific evidence??!?!”) …Are off topic seeing as the OP was specifically not concerned with scientific evidence/ argument :

Sven OP- “Since scientific arguments obviously won't reach guys like him … I decided to try to discuss logical/moral problems with the flood.”


---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Doctor X -Anyways, indeed, the waffling unsuccessfully on minor points grows tiresome . . . bring the evidence for the Flood Myths or move on!

Answerer-Ok, if you don't like the words 'scienific evidences', there are always such things called 'physical historical evidences'.
Anyway, stop beating about the bush and get to the main point, won't you?


Doctor X again - and we still wait for the Evidence that supports any one of the Flood Myths.

Waiting. . . .

Waiting. . . .

--J.D.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------


If I wanted to debate the scientific evidences of the flood I would have responded to (or started) a thread on THAT TOPIC.


By the way Answerer sorry it looks like I went off half cocked before, because you originally didn’t ask me to post it here but in the creation/evolution channel. Oops.

Answerer “But I do hope and encourage him to post his claims and physical evidences about the great flood in the Creation thread since he is so confident that Flood occurs.”


Postcard73-First, welcome to the IIDB. Although this is not the E/C forum, it is a forum designed to discuss stories that appear in the Bible. As such, scientific evidence establishing the validity of the global flood story is relevant to this discussion and can be posted here.

Thanks for the welcome and thanks for the info!
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Old 02-20-2004, 02:16 AM   #118
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Well the only thing constant about a thread is that a thread wanders.

The problem with Flood Myths is it is impossible to avoid the science entirely. Bring someone the stories--show how they contradict one another--and a True Believer will try to "explain" the inconsistencies with the assumption the stories "could have" happened.

They could not. Period. This glaring bit of dark evidence sits in the room like the proverbial white elephant. It will not be ignored.

--J.D.
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Old 02-20-2004, 02:55 AM   #119
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Quote:
Originally posted by LP675
Hehehe, nice! I love it!
I don’t know if I am a forum rule prude (tell me if I am), but it seems all this promiscuous engagement in debate of topics other than the one the OP specified are off topic. It seems Sensei Meela might be as prudish as me ; )

So all these challenges from the likes of these mugs (in effect asking “but wheres the scientific evidence??!?!”) …Are off topic seeing as the OP was specifically not concerned with scientific evidence/ argument :


By the way Answerer sorry it looks like I went off half cocked before, because you originally didn’t ask me to post it here but in the creation/evolution channel. Oops.

Yawnzzzzzzz, you are still beating around the bush. Of course, I can understand your fear and inability of not finding them and you aren't the first guy to use such a tactics.

So, case closes. See you guys around........................
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Old 02-20-2004, 03:33 AM   #120
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Quote:
Originally posted by Sven
Perhaps you misunderstood my premise.
No. I don’t think I did.

Quote:
Sven-
I meant that …
I meant…
Well you should say what you mean and mean what you say. Especially in an opening post. You could have saved all concerned a lot of trouble, because people can only interact with what you have actually written. In fact, a particularly fine mind was recently pontificating elsewhere on the wholesome nature of literal interpretations, and of saying what one means:

Spin- “I do have a respect for literalist reading of texts. People usually attempt to say what they mean.”


Quote:
Originally posted by LP675

I suspect Noah would have even mentioned the fact God was threatening to kill them all, and some might say that is trying to ?force? them to repent.


Sven- And you won't say this? Why? Because it would go against your preconceived view of your God?
HAHAHAHa….please, actually read what I said. When read in context it was clear my point was that calling God’s actions ‘forcing’ or ‘influencing a bit’ was irrelevant, and so I actually equated the two descriptions for the purposes of determining if the action was a violation of ‘free will’, according to the ‘old free will’ argument. My point was that ‘influencing’ or ‘forcing’ that didn’t violate free will was fine, including what one might called ‘forcing’ by threatening death.



Quote:
Originally posted by LP675

Now up to this point when I have discussed what people need to do to avoid damnation or punishment of some kind, I have usually put it in terms of refraining from wickedness (although often I said things more like ?love God?, ?turn from rebellion?, ?follow God? etc.). But people do not avoid eternal punishment by behaving in a ?moral way?. (Although if anyone could refrain from wrongdoing they would not be punished)


Sven-Hey, you have refuted the omnibenevolence (obvious meaning again) of you God again! If moral behaviour etc. isn't sufficient to "avoid eternal punishment", you're God obviously isn't benevolent at all!

Please read more slowly or somthing, because what I said in the final sentence you quoted was that IF anyone could refrain from wrongdoing they would not be punished. I said in the preceding sentence people ‘do not avoid eternal punishment for behaving in a moral way’, because as Paul says in Romans 3:23, no one in fact does live a sufficiently moral life.


Quote:

Sven-As an aside, God's laws where only given to the people far later (Moses)

LP-That depends on what you mean by ?God?s laws? and ?the people?. (If you mean ?written laws? and ?the Israelites?, you are probably right).


Sven- Since you have no evidence of any other laws that he gave to mankind earlier, I don't see any difference.

The other law which I proceeded to refer to was what is often called ‘natural law’ or ‘natural revelation’, whereby the heathen (and everyone) has the ‘requirements of the law written on their hearts’.



Quote:
Sven- Paul could write anything he wanted - there's exactly zero evidence to substantiate his claim.
An argument like this is pretty fruitless when you are debating with a Christian on inconsistencies of Christian doctrine. Usually one attempts to show how what Paul said can’t be reconciled with other parts of the bible. What you are really saying is this: “well even though I claimed according to the bible pre-mosaic people didn’t have the law, and it seems Paul (arguably the most important Christian writer in the bible) said they did, what Paul said is irrelevant cause’ who believes what the bible says anyway?


Quote:
Sven- Let's skip this point. We obviously talk past each other.
No I don’t think we talk past each other. I read and understand what you say, and respond. You then ignore or fail to understand what I have written.

But I agree we should skip this point and every other, as you seem bent on not reading or understanding what I say. Lets just both cut out loses on this one.

BTW nothing in this post was meant to be unpleasant, it was merely meant to be ‘direct’.
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