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Old 09-30-2009, 08:12 PM   #221
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Doesn't academic support hold any meaning for you?
Would you ask a theoretical chemist's views about scholarly aspects of Hindu poetry in the Mahabharata? How about geophysicist's views of literary theory? When you are dealing with literature you get a literary theorist's views. When dealing with history, you get a historian's views. New Testament scholars are not historians. They are text scholars, who mainly and unfortunately believe that there is history in the texts they study. Yet they are not historians. Citing text scholars giving their potted ideas of history is quite a meaningless procedure.

History is based on historical methodology, which involves an aloofness from the evidence being used for analysis. The historian tries to sublimate the stories they are familiar with in order to understand the period they are dealing with only from evidence of that period.

Citing biblical scholars -- who usually have commitments to the text --, as though they were historians, is a vain useless procedure.


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Old 09-30-2009, 09:00 PM   #222
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As a matter of formal logic, the following argument is valid (that is, if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true).

Premise 1: Anybody who can't resurrect and save mankind from their sins is irrelevant.
Premise 2: The historical Jesus can't resurrect and save mankind from their sins.
Conclusion: The historical Jesus is irrelevant.

By exactly the same logic, the following argument is formally valid:

Premise 1: Anybody who can't resurrect and save mankind from their sins is irrelevant.
Premise 2: aa5874 can't resurrect and save mankind from their sins.
Conclusion: aa5874 is irrelevant.

In my opinion Premise 2 of each argument is true, but Premise 1 is problematic. It depends on what you mean by 'irrelevant'. The meaning of 'irrelevant' is highly context-dependent. Irrelevant to what?
I cannot follow your logics at all.
It's not my logic. It's basic formal logic, as anybody who understands the subject will confirm. I think you're right that you can't follow it, though. I think I've noticed that before.
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Is there someone who have claimed that some unknown entity called aa5874 did TRULY RESURRECT 2000 YEARS AGO and that without his resurrection mankind would REMAIN in SIN.?
No, but that makes no difference to the point I was making.
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Jesus is an unknown entity, like Achilles, where implausible claims were made and witnessed. A Pauline writer claimed Jesus must resurrect to save mankind from sin and the Gospels claimed Jesus did resurrect.

Who was the historical Jesus? Where are the sources of antiquity for the historical Jesus who could not resurrect and save mankind but was deified after being crucified for blasphemy.

There is nothing.

Mr 9:31 -
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For he taught his disciples, and said unto them, The Son of man is delivered into the hands of men, and they shall kill him; and after that he is killed, he shall rise the third day.
A most absurd statement if Jesus was just a man. What really did the historical Jesus say?

There is nothing.

The historical Jesus is irrelevant.
You haven't answered my question. Irrelevant to what?
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Old 09-30-2009, 10:28 PM   #223
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I cannot follow your logics at all.
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It's not my logic. It's basic formal logic, as anybody who understands the subject will confirm. I think you're right that you can't follow it, though. I think I've noticed that before.
I understand logics but I don't understand yours.



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The historical Jesus is irrelevant.
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You haven't answered my question. Irrelevant to what?
What question? You don't understand what irrelevant means?

The historical Jesus cannot be reconstructed, no-one knows what he said, how he was derived, when and where he actually lived, what his real name was, where he was deified, or why he was deified. And, no-one knows what part of the NT is true about Jesus.

There is nothing on Jesus, external of the Church, except forgeries in Josephus and fiction in the NT and Church writings.

All that is known is that Jesus was described as a myth, as an implausible fictitious entity who resurrected and ascended through the clouds.

The historical JESUS is just useless, futile, waste of time and IRRELEVANT until you can get evidence of his relevance.
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Old 09-30-2009, 10:44 PM   #224
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What question? You don't understand what irrelevant means?
'Irrelevant' means 'not related to the matter being considered'. So whether something is relevant or not depends on which matter is being considered. You have said that 'the historical Jesus is irrelevant', but you have not said which matter you think is being considered, so it is not clear what specifically you mean by 'irrelevant' in this particular case.
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Old 10-01-2009, 12:46 AM   #225
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True, but that is not what I said.
You haven't explained how it's different from what you said. I can't see any valid methodological grounds for dismissing the possibility that some of what is written about Jesus in the canonical Gospels is historically accurate and some of it is historically inaccurate. I also can't see any strong evidential grounds for dismissing that possibility. It looks to me as if you are dismissing this possibility. If you are not dismissing the possibility, it would clarify things if you would say so explicitly. You may incline to the position that everything that is written about Jesus in the canonical Gospels is historically inaccurate, and that is (in my judgement, anyway) a plausible and defensible position, but I don't see how it's been incontrovertibly demonstrated. I see two possibilities and no decisive basis for regarding either as definitively established.

We deal with what we have.

What we have describes a certain character.

The character described is fanciful.

We have nothing else in our bucket of evidence.

What you are trying to do is remove fly specks from your buttered toast.

That is what I meant by, if one assumes an HJ...
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Old 10-01-2009, 12:56 AM   #226
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Every bit of evidence you posted is derived from who?

Mark.
Is it? How? I see no evidence for that conclusion. I haven't seen any evidence that either Tacitus or Josephus derived anything from Mark, or had even heard of Mark.
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Tacitus and Josephus, both, are bad and fairly obvious interpolations. Regardless, both "testimonies" derive from Mark, at the root.

The kicker is, it also looks like Mark derived many things in his tale from Josephus. Like a circle jerk of sorts, between the gospel writer and his later admirers, riffing on poor old Jose...

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You are simply cherry-picking to construct a rational person derived from an irrational story.
But of course. That's basic historical methodology. It's the only way historians should work and the only way they can work.
This "methodology" would historically validate any fictional character ever invented.
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Old 10-01-2009, 02:59 AM   #227
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What you are trying to do is remove fly specks from your buttered toast.
As I already pointed out earlier ...
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But of course. That's basic historical methodology. It's the only way historians should work and the only way they can work.
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Old 10-01-2009, 03:02 AM   #228
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What you are trying to do is remove fly specks from your buttered toast.
As I already pointed out earlier ...
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But of course. That's basic historical methodology. It's the only way historians should work and the only way they can work.
Perhaps when it comes to biblical historians, this is the case.

Actual historians may beg to differ.
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Old 10-01-2009, 03:18 AM   #229
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Is it? How? I see no evidence for that conclusion. I haven't seen any evidence that either Tacitus or Josephus derived anything from Mark, or had even heard of Mark.
Tacitus and Josephus, both, are bad and fairly obvious interpolations. Regardless, both "testimonies" derive from Mark, at the root.
You still haven't shown any evidence that this is so.
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The kicker is, it also looks like Mark derived many things in his tale from Josephus. Like a circle jerk of sorts, between the gospel writer and his later admirers, riffing on poor old Jose...
This is obviously impossible. If book A quotes book B, the author of book A must have read book B before writing book A. There is then no way that the author of book B can have read book A before writing book B. If one of them is a copy, the other must be the original, at least relatively speaking; the 'original' might in turn be a copy of something still earlier, but it can't be a copy of its own copy. What you can't ever have is this:
http://tinyurl.com/ye7zsaz
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But of course. That's basic historical methodology. It's the only way historians should work and the only way they can work.
This "methodology" would historically validate any fictional character ever invented.
Nonsense. Confronted with any document, even a fictional document, a historian wants to know what in it is credible and what isn't. No historian would suppose for a moment that the novels of Jane Austen have any value as historical evidence for the existence in reality of any of the characters named in them. However, they do value as historical evidence in other ways: for example, Sense and Sensibility is of value as evidence that in the early nineteenth century it was considered improper for an unmarried woman to correspond with an unrelated man to whom she was not engaged. No historian would conclude that solely because some things in a document are not true, it is reasonable to dismiss it as containing nothing of any historical value. Historians consider the Behistun inscription an important historical source even though many of them doubt the historical accuracy of some elements of the account recorded there.

Now it may be that there are good evidential grounds to dismiss the canonical Gospels as containing nothing of any historical value. I haven't seen them yet, that's all.
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Old 10-01-2009, 03:19 AM   #230
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As I already pointed out earlier ...
Perhaps when it comes to biblical historians, this is the case.

Actual historians may beg to differ.
Show me some who do.
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