FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 09-09-2005, 08:45 PM   #251
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2004
Location: none
Posts: 9,879
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
ok. so you have a source that claims polytheism and there are jews who claim monotheism. which is correct?
First you have to evaluate the sources. Since I doubt that most Jews are also archaeologists, I'd have to place my trust with those who work in the field. :thumbs:
Chris Weimer is offline  
Old 09-09-2005, 09:06 PM   #252
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Dec 2004
Location: baton rouge
Posts: 1,126
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You did not answer my question with this evasion. By what standard can you judge the standard?
the law of identity enables us to use common terminology. that is a standard. then, we can define the standard using the law of non-contradiction. that is another standard. there are two standards for you so that we can define good.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
As you have no point of perspective from which to comment on, you are certainly incompetent.
actually, i do have a point of perspective from which to comment on. i have been asking you questions to enable us to discuss it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
How does this comment relate exactly to what you were ostensible commenting on?
my point is that "beneficial" is relative. something can be detrimental in the short term but beneficial in the long term or vice versa. for that reason, God being good is separate from what is beneficial to us. as i have stated, God has allowed good and evil in this life for multiple reasons. it's up to us to choose what we do with our existence. we have been given the freewill to do so. regardless, we can still know that absolute good either exists or it does not.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Now can you give a useful meaning for your term "good", one that one might find in a dictionary so that a person might know how you personally use the term. I'm not asking for some ideal definition, but one that makes clear exactly what you intend by the word. spin
i'm not sure that i will provide what you require on the first pass, but let me take a stab at a starting point. in utilizing the law of identity, we should set up some parameters. is "good" a more (fact, action, description) or a moral (value, standard, prescription)?
bfniii is offline  
Old 09-09-2005, 09:43 PM   #253
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Dec 2004
Location: baton rouge
Posts: 1,126
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
Umm, I suggest to go back and look what we were actually discussing. Hint: it wasn't the reason for expulsion.
you stated "I expect some support for this acceptance, which goes contrary to my experience." to which i provided support that i was not the only person who believed that.

prior to that, we were discussing morality. you took issue with the fact that i allegedly believe that God wanted us to break the rule of the forbidden fruit, thus God was acting in a contradictory fasion. to clarify, i believe that God was prepared for such an eventuality. whether we chose to disobey or not, God's ultimate good will be realized either way.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
Nice. You have yet to show that "absolute truth" even exists.
either it does or it doesn't. which is it?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
I have no idea how this answers what I said.
you were implying that the truth of christianity is lessened by christians deconverting after educating themselves. christianity or atheism is not true or false based on the actions of fallible believers.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
Yes, indeed. Former Christians who deconverted despite their Christian bias. Understood now?
i was referring to how bias colors one's perspective. two people can look at a fact but draw different conclusions from it based on their bias. the fact hasn't changed, but the application of it is in question.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
Obviously they can not.
so we agree to disagree. you do not speak for the people who believe they can determine God's will.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
There are as many interpretations of god's will / plan as are denominations, or even as are Christians.
yes. but some things are universal to christians, even between protestants and catholics. that is what is most relevant here.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
And my point is that including more does not help, because Christians don't can agree what the plan is,
they do agree on the basics, but not necessarily all of the particulars which, of course, is not the most pertinent topic to our discussion.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
not even including the rest of the bible, but rather by including it. The more you take from the bible, the more unclear god's plan becomes.
this is a personal statement, not a factual one.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sven
You seem to be operating with the typical Christian tactic: Everyone interpreting the bible is dumb, except the people who agree with you.
i utilize no such tactic. i am merely trying to take each point as it is brought up. in this case, we're too close to the tree to see the forest.

it's not that God didn't want us to have morality. God let us know there would be consequences if we chose disobedience. God was prepared for the consequences either way and can use either for ultimate good.
bfniii is offline  
Old 09-09-2005, 09:49 PM   #254
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Dec 2004
Location: baton rouge
Posts: 1,126
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
First you have to evaluate the sources. Since I doubt that most Jews are also archaeologists, I'd have to place my trust with those who work in the field. :thumbs:
so who made archaeology the ultimate authority?
bfniii is offline  
Old 09-09-2005, 09:49 PM   #255
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
the law of identity enables us to use common terminology. that is a standard. then, we can define the standard using the law of non-contradiction. that is another standard. there are two standards for you so that we can define good.
I have asked you for a definition of "good". Only by supplying a suitable one can you make recourse to the law of identity (as you vaguely note later), but I believe that any definition you'd find suitable would exclude your attempted usage of the law of identity.

"You cannot logically judge, unless you supply another standard for the original standard."

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
actually, i do have a point of perspective from which to comment on. i have been asking you questions to enable us to discuss it.
Is this a game of twenty questions there, bfniii, or are you going to answer at least one question in a tangible manner?

You have no such a point that allows you to have a perspective.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
my point is that "beneficial" is relative.
Given the context in which it was used:

"You can only believe that that "good" is beneficial for all concerned"

note the "all concerned"?? You are not dealing with the problem.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
something can be detrimental in the short term but beneficial in the long term or vice versa. for that reason, God being good is separate from what is beneficial to us. as i have stated, God has allowed good and evil in this life for multiple reasons. it's up to us to choose what we do with our existence. we have been given the freewill to do so. regardless, we can still know that absolute good either exists or it does not.
This is argument for the sake of arguing.

"You can only believe that that "good" is beneficial for all concerned"

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
i'm not sure that i will provide what you require on the first pass, but let me take a stab at a starting point. in utilizing the law of identity, we should set up some parameters. is "good" a more (fact, action, description) or a moral (value, standard, prescription)?
Stop pussyfooting, bfniii. Answer the question. Such dithering on your part indicates a lack of serious response, just as in the case of the Daniel thread.


spin
spin is offline  
Old 09-09-2005, 10:18 PM   #256
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Dec 2004
Location: baton rouge
Posts: 1,126
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
I have asked you for a definition of "good". Only by supplying a suitable one can you make recourse to the law of identity (as you vaguely note later),
actually, we would need to employ the LID first in order to arrive at a definition. that is the most logically sound method of arriving at a common understanding of a term. the socratic method is a good example.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
"You cannot logically judge, unless you supply another standard for the original standard."
as i said, that's exactly what we're trying to do. we're applying the standard of the LID and LNC in order to define the standard of good.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You have no such a point that allows you to have a perspective.
so we disagree.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Given the context in which it was used: "You can only believe that that "good" is beneficial for all concerned" note the "all concerned"?? You are not dealing with the problem.
i did note that. the "all concerned" is what prompted my response that beneficial is relative. i am trying to point out that what might appear to be detrimental at first might end up being beneficial in the end or vice-versa.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
This is argument for the sake of arguing.
how so?

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Stop pussyfooting, bfniii.
no one ever accused you of being patient.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Answer the question. Such dithering on your part indicates a lack of serious response, just as in the case of the Daniel thread. spin
instead of this non-response, why don't you address my statements? tell me why you agree or disagree with them.
bfniii is offline  
Old 09-09-2005, 10:37 PM   #257
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
actually, we would need to employ the LID first in order to arrive at a definition. that is the most logically sound method of arriving at a common understanding of a term. the socratic method is a good example.
Your abbreviations are no help to me when there are numerous things I am looking at, so please desist.

The law of identity cannot work on characteristics which in themselves are based on the identity under discussion. They provide no identity.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
as i said, that's exactly what we're trying to do. we're applying the standard of the LID and LNC in order to define the standard of good.
When you stop being lazy there might be a comment.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
so we disagree.
All you need do is demonstrate the point. You have consistently failed to do so.


Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
i did note that. the "all concerned" is what prompted my response that beneficial is relative. i am trying to point out that what might appear to be detrimental at first might end up being beneficial in the end or vice-versa.
When a person is dead, there can bew nothing more "beneficial" to them. When a child dies before the ability to intend good or evil the death cannot be beneficial and the individual never had a chance to chose. For the individual there is no benefit. Benefit to "all concerned" was the notion. In its application here there is no relativity.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
how so?
Because you are avoiding the implications of my original statement (re "beneficial to all concerned"), yet saying something.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
no one ever accused you of being patient.
No-one has ever accused you of giving an honest answer to a question.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
instead of this non-response, why don't you address my statements? tell me why you agree or disagree with them.
You have been asked to give a meaningful definition of "good", so that you can stop wriggling and evading your responsibilities. Here you are wriggling and evading your responsibilities yet again.


spin
spin is offline  
Old 09-10-2005, 06:53 AM   #258
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Dec 2004
Location: baton rouge
Posts: 1,126
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
The law of identity cannot work on characteristics which in themselves are based on the identity under discussion. They provide no identity.
on the contrary, that's exactly how the law of identity works. i even gave you an example of how we can proceed, the socratic method to which you didn't respond. of course it's possible that the characteristics are going to be based on the identity we are trying to define. but we won't know until we start to categorize the characteristics.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
When you stop being lazy there might be a comment.
so we're at an impasse. you claim we need a standard to judge the standard. i supplied two distinct, legitimate philosophical standards from which we can methodically define any term. yet for some reason, you accuse me of being lazy.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
All you need do is demonstrate the point. You have consistently failed to do so.
my perspective is based on the fact that i have personal experience with the evidential form of the argument from evil/good and that i am familiar with the logical form of the same argument. in addition, i can employ a standard philosophical method which is de rigueur for us to categorize the terms.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
When a person is dead, there can bew nothing more "beneficial" to them.
i think i see where you are going. let me append my response.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
who is to say that that good has anything to do with the benefit or well-being of human, and the rest of the, beings in the cosmos?
christianity purports that God created us because He has an ultimately good plan for us; that being fellowship with Him and the ability to choose to be with Him in heaven.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
But again you cannot competently comment.
why not? if God did create this plan, shouldn't we assume He wanted us to know it?

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You can only believe that that "good" is beneficial for all concerned, while everything from viruses to hurricanes kill children who are too young to intend "good" or "evil".
this is where i was trying to point out that beneficial is relative. i think we are going to have a hard time defining earthly benefit. a person may lose their house in a storm, but it may have caused that person to make a change they otherwise wouldn't have made and thus end up better off. losing a house does not seem beneficial prima facie, but it may have a beneficial consequence which occludes beneficial definition. conversely, the permanent, spiritual benefit we are referring to supercedes any temporary, earthly gratuitous or inscrutible evil.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
When a child dies before the ability to intend good or evil the death cannot be beneficial and the individual never had a chance to chose.
do you believe that an omnipotent creator does not have a provision for such people?

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You have been asked to give a meaningful definition of "good", so that you can stop wriggling and evading your responsibilities. Here you are wriggling and evading your responsibilities yet again. spin
if by wriggling and evading you mean employing the socratic method, then you are correct. once again, my de rigueur question is: is "good" a more (fact, action, description) or a moral (value, standard, prescription)? you can either pick one or both or tell me why the question needs to be altered. or you can lob another personal insult. i prefer the former over the latter.
bfniii is offline  
Old 09-10-2005, 01:50 PM   #259
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
on the contrary, that's exactly how the law of identity works. i even gave you an example of how we can proceed, the socratic method to which you didn't respond. of course it's possible that the characteristics are going to be based on the identity we are trying to define. but we won't know until we start to categorize the characteristics.
Explain what you understand exactly defines an ideantity.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
so we're at an impasse. you claim we need a standard to judge the standard. i supplied two distinct, legitimate philosophical standards from which we can methodically define any term. yet for some reason, you accuse me of being lazy.
Bandying terms will not help you do your job. It is the application of approaches that make or break the case. It is by the fruits that you shall know them, not by the ontology.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
my perspective is based on the fact that i have personal experience with the evidential form of the argument from evil/good and that i am familiar with the logical form of the same argument. in addition, i can employ a standard philosophical method which is de rigueur for us to categorize the terms.
How do you distinguish that "personal experience" from the personal experience of anyone diagnosed with varieties of schizophrenia that allow them to have analogous personal experiences which cannot be verified through transparent means?

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
i think i see where you are going. let me append my response.
Dead men don't talk.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
christianity purports that God created us because He has an ultimately good plan for us; that being fellowship with Him and the ability to choose to be with Him in heaven.
How do you verrify such a claim?

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
why not? if God did create this plan, shouldn't we assume He wanted us to know it?
Epistemology is the central issue.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
this is where i was trying to point out that beneficial is relative. i think we are going to have a hard time defining earthly benefit.
I said nothing necessarily about earthly benefit. I talked of benefit "for all concerned".

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
a person may lose their house in a storm, but it may have caused that person to make a change they otherwise wouldn't have made and thus end up better off. losing a house does not seem beneficial prima facie, but it may have a beneficial consequence which occludes beneficial definition. conversely, the permanent, spiritual benefit we are referring to supercedes any temporary, earthly gratuitous or inscrutible evil.
I didn't give such weak examples, bfniii. I talked of people who die, especially people who die before they can intend good or evil. I chose such so that you would actually deal with the problem. A child born with AIDS is doomed before they are born. They have not opportunity to redeem themselves as is necessary in the christian religion. Those children killed in natural disasters -- and there often are numerous children killed because they cannot fend for themselves -- did not have the opportunity to redeem themselves.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
do you believe that an omnipotent creator does not have a provision for such people?
Your religion makes no provision.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bfniii
if by wriggling and evading you mean employing the socratic method, then you are correct. once again, my de rigueur question is: is "good" a more (fact, action, description) or a moral (value, standard, prescription)? you can either pick one or both or tell me why the question needs to be altered. or you can lob another personal insult. i prefer the former over the latter.
By wriggling and evading, I mean not responding to questions in a transparent and meaningful way.

I asked you to define a central term in your diatribe. That was many messages ago. It is plain that you have no intention of doing so. What you have done is thrown up one smokescreen and then another. You have shown no inclination to converse.


spin
spin is offline  
Old 09-12-2005, 04:03 AM   #260
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: UK
Posts: 5,815
Default

bfniii:
Quote:
Are you seriously suggesting that all Egyptian priests walked around with stiffened snakes in their hands just in case somebody might one day pull a stunt like this?

they don't have to walk around with snakes in order to reproduce the trick. they just need to have knowledge of how to perform the trick.
Again, your lack of Biblical knowledge is letting you down. They performed this trick immediately, without foreknowledge. Aaron turned HIS staff into a snake, they RESPONDED.

On Tyre's walls:
Quote:
Isn't it obvious? He was trying to communicate, yes? When there's a humongous set of 150-foot-high walls protecting the city, why mention another set of inconsequential walls somewhere else, without clarifying?

exactly. he didn't clarify only the set of walls surrounding the island. he was referring to the walls in general just like he referred to other general aspects of tyre.
You have, as usual, missed the point. If he was NOT referring to the great walls of the island fortress, the greatest obstacle that any attacker would have to face: he SHOULD have clarified this. He did not.
Quote:
The only means of inflicting "downfall" that is mentioned by Ezekiel is attack by human armies.

incorrect. "I will" in verses 13 and 14 refer to the ultimate destruction of tyre, not the human armies.

...Ah, I forgot: you don't understand the meaning of the word "only". More on this later.

this is another case of you reading something into the text that isn't there. you seem to think ezekiel contains the word "only" when referring to the walls. or that genesis refers to "only" for the reason of the explusion.
What OTHER means of inflicting "downfall" is mentioned by Ezekiel? An earthquake? A volcanic eruption? A giant Pythonesque foot descending from the heavens and crushing the city?

No, my statement stands: human armies are the ONLY means mentioned by Ezekiel. That's because no OTHER means is mentioned.

You have now made exactly the same blunder TWICE.
Quote:
Nope: Tyre, as the MERCHANTS knew it, was unaffected.

actually, since the city-state of tyre would at some point not exist (as is the case today), tyre's wealth is a thing of the past.
Again: this was not achieved by either Nebby or Alexander. And Tyre is still a moderately prosperous town: probably more prosperous in real terms than it was in antiquity, considering the quantities of wealth that a modern capitalist economy can generate (due to industrialization).
Quote:
Nope, the "rock" is Tyre, the island.

not entirely. tyre included the mainland as well. that's where the monarchy was.

That's what the word "Tyre" actually means.

that still doesn't show that tyre didn't include the mainland.
Missing the point (again). The rock of Tyre (the city called "the rock"), in the midst of the ocean (the island), was to be scraped bare and never rebuilt. This did not happen.

...Incidentally, where did you get the notion that the monarchy was based "on the mainland"?
Quote:
You also delibrately cut off the following words: "...thou shalt be built no more". The mainland settlement was rebuilt.

but the city-state was not. it doesn't exist and hasn't existed for a long, long time.
You relly can't keep your story straight, can you? It was YOU who claimed that this referred to the physical destruction of the mainland settlement.

On the origin of human societies:
Quote:
Biological evolution. We evolved as social animals (as I already pointed out).

yes, you're great at repeating yourself without actually answering the question. what is socially acceptable to one culture or one species is not for another. evolution does not produce these kinds of ideas. clearly this notion of society can be broken down into good and evil as i stated earlier. so what is good, evil, justice or injustice?
They are products of biological and social evolution.

Biological evolution of social animals DOES produce "these kinds of ideas": your denial does not constitute a rebuttal. All successful human societies have codified these ideas into a code of behavior (in varying ways, and to varying degrees).

On God implanting knowledge:
Quote:
Of course they'd "learn"! The information would be placed in the brain: that's what learning IS!

as i said, an omnipotent being intellectually raping someone is not learning.

And the "free-will defense" does not apply here, as only information is being imparted.

what do you think freewill comes from? it comes from information. a person, in their mind, makes a choice and then acts on that choice. stamping someone's brain with ineluctable information obviates choice.
Trust a fundie to declare knowledge to be "wrong".

Now you seem to be denying the existence of free will. If a person equipped with perfect information has no option but to make the "right" choice: then what Christians call "free will" is nothing more than random noise, misinformation that causes incorrect choices.
Quote:
What possible reason would there be for an "omnimax" God to inflict pain?

if you're referring to pain caused by people, because God respects our choice to hurt other people. if you're referring to gratuitous evil, because uncertainty is an important element of the human condition and because God can use this type of suffering for ultimate good.
You have failed to explain WHY an omnimax God would use suffering for this purpose.
Quote:
...And let's not forget that the "doctor analogy" was YOURS. It was based entirely on the fact that a human doctor doesn't have the power to make all treatments painless. Therefore it is worthless as an analogy.

actually, it's not. you're assuming that God could make life painless and still respect freewill.
Yes, this shouldn't be a problem.
Quote:
Have you spotted the contradiction between your "no we don't" and your "overrides the instinct to preserve the species"? This is the instinct we don't even have, yes?

not really. the "no" was referring to the instinct to preserve the species. the second sentence is referring to the instinct to preserve self. so evolution has provided these conflicting instincts which cause us to do all kinds of things. this notion that evolution has provided the idea of society is ridiculous. evolution has produced confusing ideas, if anything. every society is different and endorses different forms of justice. the question remains how do we categorize what is good and what is not?
Are you admitting that you goofed, or not? It appears that you're still arguing that we DON'T have an evolved instinct to preserve the species, while simultaneously arguing that we DO: that this is one of the two "conflicting instincts" you mention.

Our shared human heritage gives us the standards which allow us to reach a general agreement on what is "good" and "just", and what is not. This is why you have tried to make excuses for God.

On human sacrifice in Leviticus 27:28-29, and your bizarre "volunteers" fantasy:
Quote:
You are fantasising again. Nowhere is this mentioned, and the context refers to the person's men, beasts and fields that he owns.

this is a perfect example of a jackism. i responded with an explanation as to how it does refer to a person volunteering. do you respond to that explanation? no, you just repeat your original statement which i suppose makes you feel better.
You have provided a personal fantasy with no Biblical support, nothing more.

Many ancient cultures sacrificed enemy warriors captured in battle (including the Hebrews, though some apologists would like to pretend otherwise). Apparently you have no problem with this: you don't even seem to have a problem with the sacrifice of Midianite virgins in Numbers 31. But, for some reason, you balk at the sacrifice of firstborn children (why?). Instead, you've created a whole new category of sacrificial victims: adult volunteers.

There is no Biblical support for the existence of a category of sacrificial volunteers. As far as I know, there isn't any support for their existence outside the Bible either (unless you count the Judean suicide squad in Life of Brian). Furthermore, I have been unable to locate ANY reference to such a concept among Christian apologists.

Are you the only person in the world who believes that a group of Hebrew sacrificial volunteers existed?
Quote:
Your reliance on unsupported fantasies makes me wonder why you're a Christian at all, let alone an "inerrantist". Why not go your own way, invent your personal religion?

this comes from a person who thinks genesis portrays us as stealing freewill from God. there are several other examples of you inserting your own made up words into the text. we can discuss those examples if you like.
No, Genesis portrays us as stealing knowledge of good and evil from God. That's what the text says, and your own version is another unsupported fantasy.
Quote:
And you were simply wrong. The Flood can indeed be accurately dated: this was pointed out at the time, and since.

oh lots of people think they can accurately date the flood anywhere from 2000bc to 10000bc. and some people say there was no flood. with such a wide range of opinions, history seems to be silent on the issue right now.
Again, you cannot use personal ignorance to construct an "argument from silence". The Bible does indeed allow us to date the Flood fairly accurately, to 2300 BC (give or take a century or so). And history is NOT silent on this issue.

On the reason for the expulsion from Eden:
Quote:
I have never claimed that the Bible specifically says "...and this was the only reason", or something similar. But it is nevertheless a simple fact that the reason given IS the only reason stated. This is because NO OTHER reason is stated. That's what the word "only" MEANS. When ONE reason is stated, and no OTHER reason is stated, the reason stated is the ONLY reason stated.

but the reason that is stated was precipitated by the reasons given in the prior verses. to ignore them is to take verse 23 out of context. if you ignore the disobedience as the precipitating event, you are assuming that God would have had a problem with adam eating from the tree of life regardless of the tree of knowledge. if you make that assumption, you must provide quotes from the text that supports that position. the text seems to imply that God did not have a problem with adam eating from the tree of life until after he disobeyed.

I suggest enrolling on a remedial English-language class.

is that going to help you stop inserting words into the texts or taking verses out of context?
The context is clear. We were expelled to stop us gaining more power by eating from the Tree of Life. You are again accusing others of your own bad habits.

Genesis doesn't say whether we could have eaten from that tree if we hadn't eaten from the other. In the Sumerian original, the "magic food" grants immortality, and we lose it because the Sumerian "Adam" believed his god's lie about it being deadly, and didn't eat it. In the Genesis reworking, the author apparently botched this aspect, introducing a second magic food and failing to account for the status of both of them.

On the failure of most Jews to convert to Christianity:
Quote:
When it's an issue of who is factually correct: yes, the majority IS usually right. Exceptions occur only where the majority has inadequate access to relevant information, the truth is counter-intuitive, or the minority is in a position to know better (because they have either information or skills that the majority lacks).

here you commit another fallacy. your so-called minority is of the same religous background as the majority. in fact, they were from the same era and the same locale at the same time. so again, which set of jews is correct?

by your own reasoning (of which there is tangible support), you should side with your so-called minority because the truth of a supernatural, backwoods, healing, non-political, non-militant messiah is counter-intuitive to the common, contemporaneous jewish belief. under your own (unsupportable) rules, this would qualify as an exception to the majority being correct.
Not all counter-intuitive claims are correct: I was merely pointing out that where a majority rejects a truth, it's because that truth is counter-intuitive.

According to YOUR reasoning, you should have joined the Heaven's Gate cult and committed suicide to board the spacecraft following the Hale-Bopp comet: because they were a minority who followed a counter-intuitive "truth".
Quote:
None of these are relevant factors here. The minority who convert aren't generally expert scholars: they tend to be the young and vulnerable.

but there are scholars who are christians. so now the question is how many scholars do you require of christianity in order for it to be legitimate?
I was referring to JEWISH scholars who become Christians as a result of their religious studies. Where are they?
Quote:
Did you know that "Jews for Jesus", responsible for converting numerous Jewish students to Christianity, is a front for the explicitly Christian "Campus Crusade for Christ" movement?

which, of course, is irrelevant. what is relevant is that jews convert to christianity even today. they forego orthodox judaism in the belief that Jesus was the messiah referred to in the OT. why are they incorrect?
Because orthodox Judaism says he wasn't. Why are the converts correct? Why are the majority incorrect? Why are so many of the converts young and vulnerable students rather than rabbis etc?
Quote:
You are STILL EVADING my question:

i realize you don't like my answer, but i'm not avoiding anything. i have tried to respond to every single word you post. i have been here from the beginning of this long thread and i'm not going anywhere so feel free to drop this ridiculous accusation anytime. save yourself some keystrokes and stick to the point.
I will keep making this accusation until you stop evading (as you have been doing throughout this thread).
Quote:
you're still not providing me with an explanation of what YOU think the reason is that most Jews reject Christianity. What do YOU think their "problem" is, exactly?

i have provided at least one answer; that being they tend to ignore or misinterpret isaiah 53
No, they understand the "suffering servant" to be an allegorical representation of Israel and NOT a messianic prophecy. Also, Isaiah 53:10 says that "he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days": verses inapplicable to Jesus, who died young with no kids.

Where is your evidence that they have "misinterpreted" this, and WHY do you think they have continued to do this for two thousand years?

No answer.
Quote:
A statement of your personal fantasy (in this case: that some Jews have always been monotheistic) is not a "rebuttal".

it's not my statement. it's a fact that there are jews who believe the torah is an accurate representation of their history, i.e. monotheistic from the beginning. instead of this non-response, how about explaining to these jews why they are wrong about their own history.

Those are the ones who are ignorant of the history of their religion.

1. so they are historically authoritative enough to know that Jesus does or doesn't fulfill messianic prophecies but not enough to know whether their religion was always monotheistic?
2. by what authority do you know which jews are accurate about their theistic history and messianic prophecy fulfillment and which ones aren't? even if you are one of the most prominent jewish scholars of all time, that doesn't mean you speak for every jew from all time nor does it mean you are correct.
Because ALL adherents of ANY religion (with the possible exception of "liberals" and some polytheists, maybe) are required to believe that THEIRS is the only religion that was NOT invented by humans. They are required to be blind to the origins of their own religion: to believe that fantasy and reject the others.
Quote:
Fundamentalism, whether Jewish or Christian, requires rejection of scholarly findings:

this is probably the most inaccurate statement you have made in this entire thread. well, stealing freewill from God was pretty bad. anyway, did christians reject the extra-biblical evidence for pilate when it was found? did christians reject the harmony between the existing manuscripts and the dead sea scrolls when they were found? even when the helicentric theory was verified, christians didn't reject it. we could go on and on with examples. in fact, many scientific discoveries were made by christians in the hope of better understanding God's creation.
They hypocritically accept only those findings which support their religion, and reject those that contradict it.

And I note that you're conflating "fundamentalists" and "Christians" here.
Jack the Bodiless is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 09:23 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.