FatherMithras

Yes! The Greek septuagit says Virgin. However, the original hebrew says "maiden" or "young woman" NOT VIRGIN. Since mariage age was young, being called maiden did not mean virgin either, it was simply a mistranslation.


Stop being rude. Mathew, as shown above and as told by anyone who studies the hebrew, based his assertion on a mistranslated prophecy, something the Jews of the time were angry about and caused them to go back to using Hebrew instead of Greek. And the problem with Luke is that he got the incorrect date for the census. Your blatant inability to actually listen and refute anything we say or examine it critically is very rude.

Tigers!

Let's be radical. Maybe it happened the way it was described.:wave:

Tigers!

Yes! The Greek septuagit says Virgin. However, the original hebrew says "maiden" or "young woman" NOT VIRGIN. Since mariage age was young, being called maiden did not mean virgin either, it was simply a mistranslation.
- FatherMithras

The Hebrew only mentions age not child-beraing status so it doesn't prevent her (Mary) from being a virgin. She could be a virgin and still kept accuracy with the Hebrew.

Diogenes the Cynic

This is tendentious in the extreme.Any "young woman" in English could be a virgin, but "young woman" doesn't mean virgin, and as I said above, there is nothing in the context of the Isaiah story which would even faintly imply that the woman in question was a virgin. The woman was not Mary, but a character in that story. She was already pregnant. The baby called Emmanuel was born in that story. He wasn't the Messiah. There wasn't supposed to be anything miraculous or even remarkable about either the birth or the child. The child was referred to in the prophecy only as a marker of time. Calling the woman in the story a virgin wouldn't even make sense. It would be a jarring non-sequitur in the context of the real points.

Diogenes the Cynic

Then why were those details unknown to Paul, Mark, Thomas, Q (or in the case of the Virgin Birth) GJohn?

gregor

Tiger - And his name wasn't Emmanuel, was it?

guy_683930

The question can be asked is why 2nd century readers did not expect accuracy. Logic is the same now as it is then, though they would have had a different definition of natural. Maybe people in the 2nd century knew that these stories were (GASP!) fiction and they had no need to reconcile the irreconcilable differences.