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Old 07-22-2009, 03:55 PM   #41
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The Jesus Seminar folks are all products of seminaries or a special field called "New Testament Studies." They are not professional historians, and their methods do not pass muster with any secular evidence-based discipline. The Historical Jesus is the product of religious analysis and popular culture, not historical investigation.
Assuming that's the case for the sake of argument, let's put the Seminar to one side and pose this question in addition: Can one still maintain that there is not an overwhelming academic consensus of an entirely secular kind that posits no virgin birth or resurrection and takes Jesus of Nazareth to have been an historical human being who was entirely human and executed by the Romans under Tiberius?

Chaucer
Yes, there is an academic "consensus" (which is better labeled "conventional wisdom,") but it is not a consensus based on independent investigation and peer reviewed research.

Are you going to argue that a shared belief among academics is evidence of the truth of the belief?
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Old 07-22-2009, 04:08 PM   #42
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Assuming that's the case for the sake of argument, let's put the Seminar to one side and pose this question in addition: Can one still maintain that there is not an overwhelming academic consensus of an entirely secular kind that posits no virgin birth or resurrection and takes Jesus of Nazareth to have been an historical human being who was entirely human and executed by the Romans under Tiberius?

Chaucer
Yes, there is an academic "consensus" (which is better labeled "conventional wisdom,") but it is not a consensus based on independent investigation and peer reviewed research.
I would most certainly argue that there is at least a degree more of peer-reviewed research behind this consensus than I've generally seen -- so far -- in the mythicist lit. of Acharya, Freke, Wells, etc. And again, as far as academe goes, its consensus is primarily secular.

Sincerely,

Chaucer
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Old 07-22-2009, 04:27 PM   #43
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Yes, there is an academic "consensus" (which is better labeled "conventional wisdom,") but it is not a consensus based on independent investigation and peer reviewed research.
I would most certainly argue that there is at least a degree more of peer-reviewed research behind this consensus than I've generally seen -- so far -- in the mythicist lit. of Acharya, Freke, Wells, etc. And again, as far as academe goes, its consensus is primarily secular.

Sincerely,

Chaucer
Please provide a reference to this peer reviewed research.
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Old 07-22-2009, 06:57 PM   #44
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I would most certainly argue that there is at least a degree more of peer-reviewed research behind this consensus than I've generally seen -- so far -- in the mythicist lit. of Acharya, Freke, Wells, etc. And again, as far as academe goes, its consensus is primarily secular.

Sincerely,

Chaucer
You seem not to understand the difference between a proposition and evidence for the proposition.

Jesus was an historical figure or just human is merely a proposition.

A proposition can be 1. True 2. False or 3. Uncertain.

Many persons, perhaps millions, claim the proposition that Jesus was human is true but NONE can produce corroborative evidence to support the belief.

Some claim the proposition is false, that is, they are of the view that there was no human Jesus and such a position requires NO EVIDENCE.

The Church writers and the authors of the NT presented Jesus as the Messiah of the Jews with thousands of followers.

No non-apologetic historian who wrote about events during the reign of Tiberius or the time of Pilate wrote about a Messiah named Jesus. It must be noted that a Messiah is a very significant figure for the Jews. And no writer outside of apology mentioned the doctrine of Jesus.


There is no evidence that Jesus existed as a human in the 1st century.

The proposition can be considered FALSE until new evidence surfaces.
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Old 07-22-2009, 10:36 PM   #45
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I would most certainly argue that there is at least a degree more of peer-reviewed research behind this consensus than I've generally seen -- so far -- in the mythicist lit. of Acharya, Freke, Wells, etc. And again, as far as academe goes, its consensus is primarily secular.

Sincerely,

Chaucer
Please provide a reference to this peer reviewed research.
One's already been cited, although in a partly negative way: Bart Ehrman.

Chaucer
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Old 07-22-2009, 10:47 PM   #46
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Jesus was an historical figure or just human is merely a proposition.
As is the proposition that he never existed at all. Incidentally, I like the distinction that judge made: essentially, most historians and scientists attempt to use whatever evidence we have to derive a plausible set of conclusions; the creationist model is to spend time debunking evidence instead.

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No non-apologetic historian who wrote about events during the reign of Tiberius or the time of Pilate wrote about a Messiah named Jesus.
Hold it right there: that's begging the question already, since we have at least one direct reference by a non-apologetic historian referring to both James and Jesus: Josephus, who was actually a contemporary of James.

Sincerely,

Chaucer
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Old 07-22-2009, 10:53 PM   #47
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I have challenged everyone on this forum to cough up the goods on a historical Jesus. Everyone. Yet in the end every one of those professors of historicity have gone into the eveningtide with neither anything to show for their professing nor the honesty to admit that they are full of it.
When you mark your own exam papers naturally you get straight A's.

Another uncredentialled anonymous internet poster imagines that he is "winning" and those who dont agree are dishonest.
I gather this s a description of yourself.

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What can one say to that?
When you've shown your lack of knowledge so often -- a linguistic expert who knows nothing about the language he champions --, you should get it into your head to say "I'm going to learn something before I speak."

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If the problem is that those who disagree with you are not being honest...
It's alright, judge. Just because you side with those who claim divine right is better than than evidence, you don't have to take offense. Divine right should be sufficient for you.

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That is an answer for anything............. I guess.
And your answer is: believe. Who needs more?

If you need more, why not start by showing some ahh, evidence that clearly points to a historical Jesus... Suddenly judge starts thinking divine right is sufficient. What was that word again judge was just complaining about?


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Old 07-22-2009, 11:33 PM   #48
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I have also pointed out in the past here that the contorted description of James as "the brother of Jesus called messiah, James by name" is so unlike anything written by Josephus in that though Jesus is placed before the subject of the comment, he hadn't been mentioned before, a construction Josephus doesn't do, especially when a brotherly connection is relatively rare, for Jewish tradition was to supply the father.
LOL! I addressed exactly that in the OP:

"a frequent reason given by mythicists why we should look askance at this reference is the odd word order. But the word order in "the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ [tou legomenou Christou], whose name was James" is characteristic of Josephus:


"Wars 2.21.1
a man of Gischala, the son of Levi, whose name was Johnâ;

"Ant. 5.8.1
but he had also one that was spurious, by his concubine Drumah, whose
name was Abimelech;

"Ant. 11.5.1
Now about this time a son of Jeshua, whose name was Joacim, was the
high priest.
LOL, eh? Note the part in bold that you have ignored. Naturally, if the person has already been mentioned before, you can use inverted word order for discourse reasons. This is not the case in the short passage we are analyzing. Also note the comment about the familial connection. All of the above are father/son.

If you consult the archives you'll see that your sanatizing attempt has been tried before.

Our statement not only sticks Jesus 1) in first with no previous reference and 2) with only a fraternal connection, but also manages 3) a reference to Jesus as messiah, in the same words found in Mt 1:16. This last Origen has refuted, telling us that Josephus didn't believe that Jesus was messiah. (And there is nothing suspect about the wording of o legomenos christos from a christian point of view.)

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"This is a good example of why one should be steeped in the writing style before plunging in with both feet. "
It might be better to read what you are responding to.

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I note that you have stopped the stuff about today's consensus coming from a "an extremely secular academic discipline".
What do you think this means?

"I was responding to Toto's mischaracterization (since refined) of the strictly human Jesus model as coming only from theologians, when it simply doesn't."

And it was extremely secular at one time. Some moderate theologians merely hitched a ride later on. There was a time when ecclesiastical authorities would have had your guts for garters had you moved one step in the direction of the kind of study many in the Jesus Seminar today take for granted.

Chaucer
Ok, we've accepted Ehrman who started as a christian and went through seminary, there is little to nothing correct about the label "an extremely secular academic discipline". Even Ehrman doesn't fit that desription. Perhaps you would like to modify this misrepresentation.


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Old 07-22-2009, 11:57 PM   #49
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Our statement not only sticks Jesus 1) in first with no previous reference and 2) with only a fraternal connection, but also manages 3) a reference to Jesus as messiah, in the same words found in Mt 1:16. This last Origen has refuted, telling us that Josephus didn't believe that Jesus was messiah.
Referencing Jesus by saying he's been called Christ (as per Antiq. 20) is not the same as saying Jesus is Christ.

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(And there is nothing suspect about the wording of o legomenos christos from a christian point of view.)
Actually, in this Antiq. 20 passage, the exact wording is "tou legomenou Christou".

Varied Greek forms of this locution appear in different contexts.

Origen referring to this Josephus passage uses this specific locution three
times. But in Matthew 1:16, the phrase becomes "ho legomenos Christos"
(RSV translation, _the one called the Christ_) at the end of that
writer's elaborate family tree for Jesus. Then in Matthew 27, at 17 and
22, Pilate uses "ton legomenon Christon" (in the RSV, _who is called
Christ_) instead. There is also a variant of this that appears in John
4:25, when quoting a Samaritan woman's talk about Jesus.

Elsewhere in Origen, we find him writing about Jesus being called "the
Christ" (Against Celsus 1.66 and 4.28), while Justin Martyr (First
Apology, chapter 30) refers to Jesus as one that Christians "call
Christ".

Now, I'm not as familiar with Greek, particularly Koine Greek, as I'd
like to be, but I've read claims that the form found in the extant
Josephus text and in Origen's citation of Josephus is "in an oblique
case". Do others conversant with Greek essentially agree with that
characterization? And if so, what might that say about the other forms
elsewhere of this locution duly cited here? Also, in context, in the way
it appears in this Josephus passage in Ant. 20, is it possible to say if
the writer really means "who _was_ called Christ", or, in context, is it
possible it might be saying "who _is_ called Christ" instead? Or are
both the context and this specific phrase tense-neutral?

BTW, Dr. Robert M. Price can be heard addressing this query at

http://recordings.talkshoe.com/TC-60712/TS-191440.mp3

He's one of the few mythicists with academic credentials.

Sincerely,

Chaucer
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Old 07-23-2009, 12:51 AM   #50
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It's alright, judge. Just because you side with those who claim divine right is better than than evidence, you don't have to take offense. Divine right should be sufficient for you.
I did not take anyones side. I did not say there was or was not sufficient evidence for an historical Jesus. Try again.
I am just a bit wary of you when you claim to see the truth and claim your opponents don't because they are not being honest.

You really belong in a church (or a cult) saying that.
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