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Old 06-04-2006, 08:59 AM   #31
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
The fundamental flaw is in assuming that something supernatural would be non-empirical and unobservable. Ghosts, goblins, magic, fairies, etc., are things that could be seen and heard if they were real.
If they could be seen, heard, tasted, touched or smelled they would by definition BE empirical.
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Old 06-04-2006, 08:59 AM   #32
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Originally Posted by JW
This is the correct approach in my opinion for a Skeptic, to clearly indicate at the start that the Impossible is either Impossible or extremely unlikely as Ehrman believes and therefore can Not be history no matter what the Evidence is.
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
I'm sorry, but "X cannot be so 'no matter what the Evidence is'" is the statement of an ideologue, not a Skeptic.
JW:
Yes, I Am an Ideologuee. Of Reality. From a Practical standpoint there's no significant difference between the Position that the Supernatural is Impossible (me) and the Supernatural is extremely unlikely (Ehrman). Either way the Skeptic starts with the Assumption that a Supernatural resurrection is not History. I commend Ehrman for starting out with this here because I think it is Theoretically the correct approach. Many Skeptics don't like to start out like this because they think from a Practical standpoint it makes them look like an idealogue to their Believer opponent and therefore they will be more persuasive without it.

The bottom line is that for a religious argument to have Logical standing you must use the Same rules of Logic that would be used in any other discipline. You can not use different rules and expect your conclusion to have any logical weight. This is Ehrman's point. You can argue for the resurrection as a theologian but not as a historian.

In mathematics 1 + 1 + 1 = 3. It is Impossible for 3 not to be the result. The probability of 3 is exactly 100%. The probability of anything else is -0-. This exactness is what mathematical formulas are based on. When a Historian looks for the reason Bush invaded Iraq, the probability that it was because God told him to do so (as opposed to him thinking God told him) is -0-. That's the Real world. "Impossible" is an accepted word in the Dictionary. When you no longer accept its Definition than any related argument has no Logical standing.

Again though, I don't need to have a probability for the Impossible here of -0-. Close to -0- yields the same conclusion. A supernatural resurrection is not historical. I could also Retreat my Conclusion to give it more weight to you. Any Impossible claim in the Past is not Historical (because Past evidence would be Inferior). Or any Unique Impossible claim is not Historical (because of lack of comparison).

Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
One fundamental problem I see in this discussion is the idea that miracles are inherently improbable simply because they are contrary to natural law. If we had well-documented evidence that some people or some deity could on occasion suspend natural law, then the mere existence of natural law would hardly make miracles too improbable to be believed. The real problem is that when some people do try to track down the evidence for miracles, what is found is rumor, exaggeration, urban legend, misunderstanding, misinterpretation of natural phemonena, etc. Basically, then, when we see miracles reported in historical documents, we have good reason to suspect that we are yet again looking at rumors and tall tales, and for a historical document to be a good witness to a miracle, it needs to be established that embellishment, legend, and so on, is an insufficient explanation for the report of the miracle in the text. In short, it isn't that miracles are inherently improbable, but rather that human testimony has such a bad track record in regard to miracles that reports of miracles in the historical record are more likely to be just further examples of that poor track record than reliable evidence of a miracle.
JW:
You're being too cautious. We have no proven example of the Impossible ever happening. If you are unwilling to use that as a Rule that the Impossible is Impossible your related Uncertainty should prevent you from making any conclusions, including the Impossible is Possible.

In any case, the pratical problem for Believers who start with the Assumption that the Impossible is Possible is still the Distance between the best Possible evidence and what the evidence is for the supposed resurrection. I Am reminded of the classic movie The Chronicles of Riddick. As opposed to Jesus the Necromancer Leader appears to have non-human powers that are displayed to a multitude of contemporary hostile witnesses. Even so, how do you rule out that the Source is merely Superior science or even if it is Supernatural, it's not God or even a Divine source that is good?

The claimed Christian resurrection has Implications that it allowed Jesus to continue to communicate in scientifically detectable Ways. Yet science tells us that Jesus' ability to communicate for the last 2,000 years is completely consistent with his dying and not being resurrected. How far is this from the evidence Riddick had that the source of his opponent's power was God?



Joseph

Necromongers. N. Fictional Religious sect who believe Science should be used to impose primary religious belief that Life should primarily be a Preparation for Death. There are non-Fictional religions with the same high purpose but the discreet Historian does not name them.

http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Main_Page
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Old 06-04-2006, 09:02 AM   #33
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But there is nothing wrong with making a default assumption that natural laws cannot be violated until proven otherwise. If you don't make that assumption, you can't apply empirical method at all. Detectives investigating a murder would be wasting their time if they could not rule out supernatural explanations a priori.
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Old 06-04-2006, 09:39 AM   #34
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
If they could be seen, heard, tasted, touched or smelled they would by definition BE empirical.
Indeed. I never argued otherwise. My point is that when we consider concrete examples of things that are considered supernatural, we are considering things that could be seen, heard, tasted, touched or smelled if they were to exist. This means that your idea that the supernatural and the empirical are mutually exclusive is simply wrong.
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Old 06-04-2006, 09:53 AM   #35
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
But there is nothing wrong with making a default assumption that natural laws cannot be violated until proven otherwise. If you don't make that assumption, you can't apply empirical method at all.
There is nothing wrong with such an assumption provided that one understands why the assumption is being made in the first place and what possible evidence could overturn it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
If you don't make that assumption, you can't apply empirical method at all.
This is not quite true. The empirical method is merely a matter of finding the best explanations for the observations that have been made. There is an assumption in the empirical method that the senses are reliable enough to make pertinent observations, but this is a weaker and less sweeping assumption than the idea that natural laws cannot be violated. Rather, that natural laws cannot be violated is a conclusion based on applying the empirical method.
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Old 06-04-2006, 09:59 AM   #36
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
Amaleq13, I believe what jjramsey was saying was that miracles are contrary to natural law but that in and of itself does not rule out their possibility. Therefore the conjunction "and" cannot apply.
I would tend to agree with that statement but I disagree about the conjunction. "Natural law" describes what has been repeatedly observed to occur. Miracles are considered improbable because they are contrary to those observations. I consider "impossible" to connote a level of certainty that does not accurately reflect the contingent nature of scientific inquiry.

What usually happens isn't what always happens even if it is what has always been observed and what is incredibly unlikely to ever occur isn't the same as "impossible".
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Old 06-04-2006, 10:09 AM   #37
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
Miracles are certainly contrary to natural law, and that limits how often one could expect them to be done.
Events that are not expected to occur very often are, by definition, "improbable".

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However, one can certainly imagine an alternate universe where people routinely got miraculously cured in a church healing service and that this could be verified by doctors, etc. That this is conceivable implies that the fact that the reason that reports of miracles in the real world are not generally credible has little to do with the concept of a miracle itself and more to do with the dubious nature of the evidence for miracles that we have noted so far.
I don't think your thought experiment implies anything except your ability to imagine an alternate universe. That you are able to imagine a universe in which magic apparently exists really says nothing about our own.

All miracles are, by definition, improbable. Specific alleged miracles are not credible because they lack reliable supporting evidence.
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Old 06-04-2006, 10:18 AM   #38
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Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
The law at time 1 is immutable because when we "observe" a phenomena that invalidates it or runs contrary to it then we set up a new law. Thus it is not a fallacy to say that laws are immutable.
"Immutable" is defined as "unchanging over time or unable to be changed" and the law you describe in your first sentence is changed by the end of it into another law describing the additional evidence. Therefore, it cannot be described as "immutable".

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Their mutability lies in the fact that we "adjust" them according to new phenomena, but when we do that we have made a "new" law.
The "old" law has changed if only in the sense that it is no longer accurate in its description of the universe.

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My question is, if all laws are based upon empirical observations and are provisional upon being discarded as new observations are made, how is it that we would ever be able to conclude that something non-empirical (i.e. supernatural and thus "naturally" unobservable) acted upon what it is we are observing?
The observed entity/action would, by definition, no longer be "supernatural" or "non-empirical". IOW, an empirically verifiable god is not supernatural.
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Old 06-04-2006, 10:24 AM   #39
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
If they could be seen, heard, tasted, touched or smelled they would by definition BE empirical.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
Indeed. I never argued otherwise. My point is that when we consider concrete examples of things that are considered supernatural,
But my point is that how is it that we come to "consider" whether something is ABOVE the limits of the natural world (i.e. SUPERnatural) if the only apparatus we have for taking in data IS empirical, thus limited to the natural?

Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
This means that your idea that the supernatural and the empirical are mutually exclusive is simply wrong.
I think they are mutually exclusive. The idea of the supernatural derives from the natural. It is a mental construct and as such it can be demonstrated to be natural in origin. I contend that IF there exists something supernatural, we can never know about it, and as soon as it manifests itself into an empirical form, which we then could experience, that that aspect of it ceases to be supernatural and its origins will forever be hidden from our naturally bound method of perception.
That is by definition what SUPERnatural is. "above" the natural...they are mutually exclusive.
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Old 06-04-2006, 10:38 AM   #40
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
The law at time 1 is immutable because when we "observe" a phenomena that invalidates it or runs contrary to it then we set up a new law. Thus it is not a fallacy to say that laws are immutable.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
"Immutable" is defined as "unchanging over time or unable to be changed" and the law you describe in your first sentence is changed by the end of it into another law describing the additional evidence. Therefore, it cannot be described as "immutable".
The original "law" I described never changes. A new law replaces it. Adherents to each can make there cases as to why they believe one cooresponds with nature better whereas the other fails. But they are now TWO laws.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
The "old" law has changed if only in the sense that it is no longer accurate in its description of the universe.
And that is up to individuals to decide. That is why there are now two laws to choose from. Laws are immutable in the sense that they are discarded as "wrong" and the new ones then replace them are accepted as "right". The new information does not change the law. It simply creates a new one.

I thik we need a definition of "god" and a definition of "supernatural" to clear this issue up a bit.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
The observed entity/action would, by definition, no longer be "supernatural" or "non-empirical". IOW, an empirically verifiable god is not supernatural.
What is an empirically verifiable god? If such an entity existed would we call it a god because it could do unexplained things which seemed to violate cause and effect according to its desires or would it be a god because it could contradict and thus violate cause and effect to its own desires? :huh:
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