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Old 02-24-2010, 08:21 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by dog-on
Perhaps, but this doesn't change the fact that many issues disappear if Paul was originally Marcionite and that Marcionism was actually merged, though denigrated in it's pure form, into the orthodoxy.
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Originally Posted by aa5874
What orthodoxy?
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Originally Posted by dog-on
The one that became the Catholic Church.
Who was preaching and teaching the doctrine of the Trinity before the Catholic Church in the second century? The belief that Jesus was NOT always in existence may have been orthodox before the doctrine of the Trinity. The doctrine of the Catholic Church may have been heretical.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
Which Paul was originally Marcionite?
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Originally Posted by dog-on
The one that wrote Galatians.
And the Church writers did not know! You mean to tell me that the Church canonised or used the writings of a Marcionite even before Marcion existed, before there were even Marcionites.

You seem not to realise that according to the Church the Pauline writings were in circulation about 100 years before Marcion. According to the Church Ignatius, Polycarp and Clement were aware of the Pauline writings.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
Which Church writer can tell exactly what "Paul" wrote?
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Originally Posted by dog-on
None that I know of, but maybe Ireneaus.
So, you will just guess.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
When was Marcionism merged into orthodoxy?
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Originally Posted by dog-on
Mid to late second century, though the 'pure' form lasted for a few centuries after that time.
When was Marcion teaching the doctrine of the Trinity in a "pure" form. You seem not to understand the doctrine of the Catholic Church and the doctrine of Marcion.

You must have forgotten that Marcion's God was not the the God of the Catholic Church.


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Originally Posted by aa5874
You have not presented any facts only "ifs".
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Originally Posted by dog-on
Such is the nature of the beast.
"IF'S" are not beasts they are more like nuisances when they cannot be substantiated by the real beasts called facts.


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Originally Posted by aa5874
The admission by Hippolytus that Marcion used the doctrine of Empedocles and not the Pauline Epistles tends to make Tertullian's veracity with respect to Marcion disappear.
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Originally Posted by dog-on
I suppose that doctrine can mean belief and does not have to mean document.
I suppose that the beliefs of Empedocles may have been found in documents. I suppose Hyppolytus saw the documents from Marcion and Empedocles and noticed there were similar in doctrine.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
This is another Church writer who did not know that Marcion himself altered any Gospel.
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Originally Posted by dog-on
If you wanted to integrate an existing canon into your own, while denigrating the originator, how would you do it?
How would I do what? The writer called Origen is saying what he knows was not done. This writer Origen is claiming that it was the followers of Marcion that mutilated the Gospels.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
So, again, another third century writer Origen tends to make the veracity of Tertullian disappear.
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Originally Posted by dog-on
I never said that I believed Tertullian. Of course, Tertullian may have only been working with what he thought was true at that time.
Tertullian may have been working from what he knows was false. And the abundance of internal evidence from Church writers suggests that Tertullian provided false or erroneous information about Marcion.

Tertullian even admitted that what he claimed was from Marcion was really anonymous.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
You need to find a credible source that can show that one of the Pauls was a Marcionite since we can always say "what if".
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Originally Posted by dog-on
Do you have a time machine handy?
When I say that the Pauline writings are anachronistic it is because I have information that indicate that "Paul's" time machine was not built or in operation before the Fall of the Jewish Temple around 70 CE.

Paul's time machine was built or became operational after the Jesus story was written. Jesus of the Synoptics was the driver of Paul's time machine and was taught to drive this machine by Jesus, the offspring of the Holy Ghost and his assitant the Septuagint also known or posing as Hebrew Scripture.
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Old 02-24-2010, 08:29 AM   #12
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AA, you seem to have read more into my post then I actually said, so I do not know how to respond, exactly.
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Old 02-24-2010, 09:02 AM   #13
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AA, you seem to have read more into my post then I actually said, so I do not know how to respond, exactly.
But, please identify what I have mis-read in your post. I have deliberately configured my post in such a manner that it could be extremely clear.
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Old 02-24-2010, 09:09 AM   #14
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AA, you seem to have read more into my post then I actually said, so I do not know how to respond, exactly.
But, please identify what I have mis-read in your post. I have deliberately configured my post in such a manner that it could be extremely clear.
For instance, I never claimed that Marcion was preaching the trinity.

This kinda thing...
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Old 02-24-2010, 09:19 AM   #15
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But, please identify what I have mis-read in your post. I have deliberately configured my post in such a manner that it could be extremely clear.
For instance, I never claimed that Marcion was preaching the trinity.

This kinda thing...
But this is what you posted.

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Originally Posted by dog-on
Perhaps, but this doesn't change the fact that many issues disappear if Paul was originally Marcionite and that Marcionism was actually merged, though denigrated in it's pure form, into the orthodoxy.
Can you please explain what exactly you mean by "the orthodoxy"?
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Old 02-24-2010, 09:52 AM   #16
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AA. what is your background?

For example I was brought up pentecostal xian and am therefore steeped in loads of preaching about this sort of stuff and am therefore completely befuddles by it!

I remember all of this fitting together like a glove so actually I would argue it is probably very carefully woven together - I cannot work out if that is an order imposed afterwards by two millenia of trying to make it fly, like the spruce goose.
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Old 02-24-2010, 09:57 AM   #17
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Lucian
Do we mean him?

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Lucian also wrote a satire called The Passing of Peregrinus,[10] in which the lead character, Peregrinus Proteus, takes advantage of the generosity and gullibility of Christians.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lucian
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Old 02-24-2010, 02:48 PM   #18
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Now, if the Pauline writer was well known all over the Roman Empire and his teachings, churches and Pauline Jesus were well established why did the authors of gMatthew and gLuke use material for the Markan Jesus found in the anonymous writing called gMark
Because Paul was not "well known all over the Roman Empire." During his lifetime and for at least a hundred years afterward, he was a historical cipher.
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Old 02-24-2010, 06:25 PM   #19
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When one examines the NT Canon and Church writings it becomes very evident that the Pauline writings are out of place, outside of their time zone. The Pauline writings as found , like Acts of the Apostles, were written to present a false history of Jesus believers.
On the contrary, they don't present much history at all, false or otherwise. Most of the Pauline letters are occasional, and all of them give advice to Christian communities regarding how they ought to deal with their problems.
But, a Pauline writer claimed that he was not lying when he placed himself in a basket somewhere in Damascus during the time of Aretas or sometime around 40 CE.

This a Pauline writer in 1 Cor 11.31-33

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31 The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which is blessed for evermore, knoweth that I lie not.

32 In Damascus the governor under Aretas the king kept the city of the Damascenes with a garrison, desirous to apprehend me: 33 And through a window in a basket was I let down by the wall, and escaped his hands.
My position is that the Pauline writer is very likely to be lying.

There is NO historical source that show there was a character called Jesus the Messiah or Christ who was defied by Jews who did not worship men as Gods.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
The Church writers put forward information that there was one single Pauline writer, but that does not seem to be the case, there were multiple writers posing as "Paul".
Quote:
Originally Posted by hatsoff
Where did you get that idea? In fact, many of the Pauline epistles are openly and internally credited to more than just Paul (e.g. 2Co, 1Th, Pp). But you claim that there were additional writers "posing" as Paul. This is certainly true for apocryphal literature (e.g. 3 Corinthians, Laodiceans), and it may be true for the disputed Pauline letters. But why do you think it is true for the seven accepted Pauline letters?
I did not use the word "additional". You use the word "additional". Please read what I wrote.

Church writers claimed all the Epistles with the name Paul are authentic. It has been deduced that there were more than one writer using the name Paul.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
It can be easily shown that the authors of the Synoptics were not aware of the Pauline revelations from Jesus. It can be easily shown that the authors of the Synoptics were not converts of any Pauline teachings.

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Originally Posted by hatsoff
Now hold on just a second. I think we can agree the Synoptics probably don't have a literary dependence on Paul, and the case for a theological influence is admittedly tenuous, but what makes you think the authors of the Synoptics had know knowledge of Paul's revelations, or his correspondence? Is it really so strange that they may have simply chosen to omit that material, or to let it color their re-tellings of Jesus' life?
Well you have answered your own question. Once there is no dependence on Paul then one can reasonable claim that the authors of the Synoptics were not aware of Paul's revelations or were not his converts.

Once the Pauline Jesus was already established all over the Roman Empire, and there were churches and converts who believed in the Pauline Jesus then the Synoptic Jesus should have the "color" of the Pauline Jesus.

It must be noted that the author of gLuke claimed he used sources and possibly eyewitnesses to compile his gospel, but still did not use a single verse from a Pauline writing to "color" the Lucan Jesus.

The Pauline Jesus did not tell or reveal to Paul that the Jewish Temple would fall or that Paul himself may see Jesus coming in the clouds of heaven.

Now, gLuke's Jesus has almost the same "color" as gMark's Jesus.



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Originally Posted by hatsoff
..... Paul agrees with the Synoptics that Jesus had to rise again according to the Scriptures. For example, in Mt 26:56 we have Jesus affirming of his arrest and forthcoming death and Resurrection that "all this has taken place that the Scriptures of the prophets might be fulfilled" (ESV). In the Markan parallel Jesus tells them to "let the Scriptures be fulfilled" (Mk 14:49), and in Luke we have the same sentiment, e.g. Lk 22:37 in which Jesus declares, "For I tell you that this Scripture must be fulfilled in me."
But, you are showing that gMatthew, gMark and gLuke have the same "color". No where in the Synoptics does Jesus teach his disciles that he MUST die and resurrect for the sins of all mankind. Jesus in the Synoptics came tp preach almost entirely to Jews ABOUT the gospel of the kingdom of God and heaven.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
The Jesus of the Synoptics did not teach his disciples that the Laws of God including circumcision would be abolished due to his death and resurrection.
Quote:
Originally Posted by hatsoff
This is true for Mt and Mk, but not for Luke, who has Jesus declare, "behold, everything is clean for you" (11:41). In his second volume, Acts, this teaching is clarified further through Peter's vision (10:9-16, 11:1-18).
It has been deduced that gLuke and Acts were most likely written after the Fall of the Temple. It is also very likely that there was no real character called Peter in the 1st century before the Fall of the Temple.

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Originally Posted by aa5874
....On three separate occasions the Synoptics Jesus does not tell the disciples that he came to abolish the Laws of God incuding circumcision and that without his death and resurrection mankind would remain in sin.
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Originally Posted by hatsoff
I do not see the relevance of this. He doesn't say a lot of things in those three passages. But so what?

Mt 5:17 is the only passage I know where Jesus explicitly declares that he has not come to abolish the law, and I agree this is in conflict with Paul's teachings. But we cannot infer from this observation that Matthew or any other Synoptic author lacked knowledge of or access to Paul's correspondence.
Your are very wrong. That is exactly what can be inferred. When we see blatant disagreements it surely cannot be inferred that the authors of the Synoptics were aware of the Pauline writings.

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Originally Posted by hatsoof
I've got to go, and so I will cut my critique of your argument short. But I think it's clear that your inferences require further justification than just an argument from silence. For example, Ignatius shows no dependence on Hebrews, to which indeed his anti-Jewish rhetoric is very much opposed. Shall we then assume Ignatius lacked knowledge of Hebrews? By no means!
But, that is exactly what I need. There is silence.

And you have confirmed the silence.

I need silence to demonstrate that the authors of the Synoptics were unaware of the Pauline revelations and were not his converts.

I use the argument from silence to show that there was silence in the Synoptics with respect to the Pauline writings.

And I am not dealing with Ignatius right now, but I will show that he was most likely aware of the Pauline writings.

This is a writing under the name Ignatius in an "Epistle to the Ephesians"

Quote:
...You are initiated into the mysteries of the Gospel with Paul, the holy, the martyred, the deservedly most happy, at whose feet may I be found, when I shall attain to God; who in all his Epistles makes mention of you in Christ Jesus...
Ignatius is NOT silent about Paul but there is no argument that the Synoptics are SILENT and show no awareness of the Pauline revelations.
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Old 02-25-2010, 12:36 AM   #20
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For instance, I never claimed that Marcion was preaching the trinity.

This kinda thing...
But this is what you posted.

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Originally Posted by dog-on
Perhaps, but this doesn't change the fact that many issues disappear if Paul was originally Marcionite and that Marcionism was actually merged, though denigrated in it's pure form, into the orthodoxy.
Can you please explain what exactly you mean by "the orthodoxy"?
The group that later became the Catholic Church.
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