jackal5096

Yes, that is very true, which is what leads me to think that the later gospel writers used these teachings of Paul to create the dialog for Jesus. I find it really difficult to think that (1) these parallels are just coincidental, and (2) that Paul would never attribute or give credit to a teaching or quote directly from the Lord.

Duck

I agree. And (to follow the lead of Equinox's Mr. Obvious ...) many Christians (at least, those who read the Bible ...) are not aware of this discrepancy because of the order of the New Testament canon.

fta

Umm, weren't those the words of Epicurus rather than Jesus?

Diogenes the Cynic

It's generally taken for granted in this forum that when someone makes reference to what "Paul said," that they're only talking about the 7 letters of what is accepted as the authentic Pauline corpus.

John Kesler

Really? I always thought that forums like this are where one discusses matters of authenticity, not where it's "taken for granted" that only certain words attributed to NT characters are genuine. Is it "taken for granted" by all "in this forum" that Colossians and Ephesians, for example, weren't written by Paul? Do other moderators concur with the assertion that only "authentic" Pauline material should be cited when a member requests a Pauline teaching?

Doug Shaver

Some of Paul's teachings are the same as some teachings attributed to Jesus. If that constitutes "quoting the teachings of Jesus," then the answer is yes.

However, with the exception you noted, in none of the epistles that are generally considered authentically Pauline does he say that the teachings came from Jesus. Occasionally, he attributes them to "the lord." I am aware of no compelling reason to assume in any of those instances that when Paul says "the lord," he means "Jesus."

Gamera

How about the fact that he refers to "our Lord Jesus" about two dozen times, and as far as I can tell never refers to anybody else, including God the Father, as lord?

DCHindley

Well, actually, the letters of Paul do use the title "Lord" (KURIOS) in numerous places as a circumlocution for the divine name. If you have a Greek text handy, it will be the times he uses the word without a definite article.

On the other hand, when you see the definite article with KURIOS the subject at hand is virtually allways Jesus, Christ Jesus or Jesus Christ.

Dave H

Gamera

I'm sure you're right. But the vast majority of the time, Paul is specifically refering to Jesus with the term "lord" as he makes abundantly clear, usually by saying "our Lord Jesus," or some similar locution, or a reference to the crucifixion, as in 1 Corinthians 2:8, or other attribute of Jesus. This suggests that where he merely references KURIOS, without more, he probably means Jesus.

Ben C Smith

I am not so sure about that. I think of Romans 1.7, for example. Or Romans 14.14.

Ben.