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07-10-2012, 03:37 AM | #31 | ||||
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Version B is a late and diffuse working-over of the same matter: Version A looks the oldest .... Quote:
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I can see that this dating issue is a serious exception but the question in my mind is whether a dating issue can be seen as "blasphemous". It may be that because of this dating exception within the texts that at some stage scholarship has concluded that the version known to Eusebius is not the version known to us. But this conclusion can be questioned. Quote:
Therefore the date for the original ms is either early or late 4th century. Because it is known that the emperor Constantine ordered that the network of temples to Asclepius was to be destroyed (by the army) we might suspect that the ploy of having Jesus heal in the name of Asclepius may have been a reaction to Constantine's religious agenda by those (many) followers of Asclepius who had just been shafted. (This suspicion conjectures that Eusebius - or his continuators - lied about the appearance of the AoP under Maximinus). |
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07-10-2012, 03:58 AM | #32 | |||||||
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An original Acts of Pilate , a positive Acts of Pilate, was mentioned by Justin - post #4 above. |
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07-10-2012, 04:07 AM | #33 | |
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07-10-2012, 08:17 AM | #34 | |||||
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07-10-2012, 12:45 PM | #35 | ||
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Please, there is NO need to IMAGINE the story of Jesus as it is ALREADY documented in the Canon. Please, there is NO evidence for YOUR parody. Why are people constantly claiming events probably occurred that are no where documented to have happened and in the 1st century??? |
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07-10-2012, 01:38 PM | #36 | |||||||||||
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(1) Eusebius provides an extended mention of a narrative text (not a decree or edict) called the "Acts of Pilate", and classifies it as "blasphemous". Quote:
(2) We have a text before us called the "Acts of Pilate". The logic of the mainstream scholarship appears to be this: (3) The text before us is not the same one as Eusebius mentions and must have been written as a Christian "counter-blast" to the text mentioned by Eusebius. I do not understand the logical step (3) drawn from the evidence 1 and 2, Quote:
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So essentially we have a Praetorian guard doing a translation from the Hebrew to the Greek. Are anyone's eyebrows raised? We also have a date precisely 100 years after Nicaea, which implies someone edited the text after the 4th century, since the text is considered to have been authored before Epiphanius mentions it. In one sense, this text is an extended and elaborately embellished parody of the One True Canonical collection of books. In it Pontius Pilate lets the Jews know that Jesus is healing by the Healing God of the Roman Empire, not the god of the Hebrew empire. It seems to be a pagan counterblast to the new and strange testament. In any other words, a seditious parody against the Christian Canonical Orthodox heresiology. I see it as quite a reasonable possibility that Eusebius would also see this as a seditious parody of his One True Canonical Story, and that he would have responded and counter-blasted that this text, the one before us, is a most blasphemous concoction of those vile and pernicious heretics, whom he tells us were devastasting his most holy flock. FFS the text is supposed to have been written by a pair of zombies, rounded up after the mass resurrection event in downtown Jerusalem, and given writing implements. Leucius and Karinus (the zombies are explicitly named) disappear in a blinding flash leaving perfectly identical manuscripts that are entrusted to Pontius Pilate. This could have been written by Monty Python. Additionally there is a direct correspondence in this text to the only name of any non canonical author ever mentioned by the orthodox heresiological organisation - "Leucius Charinus", a name that is soundly cursed by Christian Emperors and Christian Bishops for centuries, commencing from the later 4th century. The claim is that these names are NOT coincidental. The logic I am outlining is Occamish - that therefore that we do not need to ADDITIONALLY hypothecise a,b,c and d: (a) An The Acts of Pilate is mentioned by Eusebius during his lifetime. and (b) Another totally different "Christian" Acts of Pilate was authored in the later 4th century and (c) the text (b) does survive and (d) the text (a) was destroyed. Instead I am claiming that it is far more reasonable to believe that: (a) An The Acts of Pilate is mentioned by Eusebius during his lifetime. and (b) the text (a) does survive Dig the logic O Toto? Quote:
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07-10-2012, 02:29 PM | #37 | ||
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There is no mention of the 7th year of Tiberius in the two texts of Acts of Pilate on the Tertullian org site. One text has the 15 th year of Tiberius, the other the 18 th year of Tiberius. It is the setting of the story that is relevant for this thread - Eusebius' version had the 7th year of Tiberius. From the OP : Quote:
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07-10-2012, 04:41 PM | #38 | |||||||||
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07-11-2012, 12:00 AM | #39 | |||
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07-11-2012, 12:05 AM | #40 |
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We should allow ourselves to take sides on the question of whether Pilate's original report supports the existence of a historical Jesus. The question is quite separate from whether or not the original report was authentic or not. I tend to think something must have existed. Nevertheless as I just mentioned I think it is possible the historical reality of the crucifixion might actually uphold the substitution myths of various gnostic cultures and currently believed by over a billion Muslims. For instance, the sign which appears on the crucified man in the gospel(s)
“The King, Judah” המלך יהודה in Hebrew or מלכה יהודה in Aramaic. In other words, the person being crucified was Judas not Jesus. I already assume this is over the heads of most people at this forum but there it is. |
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