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Old 10-29-2009, 11:21 AM   #31
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To clarify, I meant that Bart Ehrman does a very good job in explaining how the dating process works, which is rather more rigorous than your earlier comment suggested. Space inhibits expanding on his reasoning- best to read him.
But your one cite doesn't tell me where he does this.

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I'm sorry you don't find the Wikipedia article fair. I had hoped we could agree on its broad conclusions. Those would be that there is a spectrum of belief, with the usual suspects at both ends, and most in the middle. For example, most would agree that e.g. Peter's speeches are reconstructions, rather than verbatim transcripts of a Peter-cam. On the other hand, most would agree that Luke travelled with Paul, and the end is genuine autobiography.
Most would not agree with the claim of genuine autobiography, including many Christians.

Paul's letters indicate that he knew a physician named Luke. Irenaeus, in an attempt to harmonize the epistles and Acts, decided that Luke must have been the author of Acts, because of the use of the third person plural in certain passages, indicating that the author was traveling with Paul.

The consensus among non-evangelicals is that Acts was not written by a companion of Paul, for various reasons that you can find in older threads here or in any standard reference. Acts shows evidence of incorporating material from Josephus, so it was most likely written in the second century, past the life span of an adult who traveled with Paul (assuming a mid first century date for Paul and normal life spans.) In addition, one would expect that a companion of Paul would have stated his authority and his sources explicitly, and given his name, rather than coyly hiding a few clues in the use of the third person plural.

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As an aside, I find the challenges to Luke's involvement with Paul revealing. They involve convoluted theories imposed on a perfectly simple idea of two people who sailed together. Perhaps having someone so close to the action is so unpalatable to non-Christians that they feel the need to create issues with something no-one would ever normally think of questioning.
This reveals more about you, I'm afraid. There is nothing in Acts after the first chapter that creates any difficulty for non-Christians. But Acts just does not hold up as history, and most of this analysis that shows this has been done by Christians like Pervo and Robbins, not by atheists.

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My comment is in context in that RC is saying in the piece, 'Luke's history telling abilities aren't good enough for establishing the resurrection to modern standards'. Otherwise, and for our purposes of using Acts as history, Luke is “better than average”.
Richard Carrier said that Luke was not a critical historian. You may notice that he implicitly accepts the consensus view that Luke was not an eyewitness to any of the events. There is nothing in Carrier's essay that would support using Acts as a source of history.

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By academic mainstream, I'm referring to the sort of writers are on reading lists for the better universities. Wright via Vermes to Ehrman.
By mainstream, I am referring to specialists who devote their academic careers to these issues.

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Any Christian who can't deal with interpolations is always going to struggle (ending of Mark!). I don't have a problem, but again, you're badly exaggerating the academic centre of gravity on this. The majority of interpolation claims seem (again) to be motivated by a desire to remove inconvenient challenges to non-Christian belief.
I would argue that the claims of non-interpolation are motivated by Christian resistance to treating their sacred texts as products of human history.
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Old 10-29-2009, 12:27 PM   #32
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The Jake Jones - aa exchange has been split off here, where it can spin its wheels in peace.
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Old 10-29-2009, 01:47 PM   #33
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The Jews I'm talking about were the earliest members of the Christian church, who did allow the centrepiece of their belief, their monotheism, to be rethought to include a human being. Furthermore, those closest to Jesus allowed their thinking about the nature of the Messiah, the role of Israel, and the place of the Torah to be radically redefined. Everything they had grown up to believe about YHWH their God, their nation, and how YHWH would act to redeem their nation, was rethought.

For many Jews this was too big a step. So the historical question remains about what event shocked those closest to Jesus into such a complete and unpredictable rethink.
The monotheism of the Jews might have accommodated a spiritual Christ, evolved possibly from the earlier mythical figure of Wisdom. But a living human being claiming to be God incarnated seems absolutely un-Jewish. This may have been a later development, a "bringing down to earth" or historicizing of the original saviour figure, maybe when the movement became predominantly gentile.

The "shocking event" you propose could have been the bar-Kochba revolt in the 130s, the final and utter destruction of the Jewish state. At this point Christianity may have split into Jewish and non-Jewish groups, and the torah-free gospel of the earthly Jesus may have taken over from messianic or gnostic Jews.
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Old 10-29-2009, 04:02 PM   #34
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The Jews I'm talking about were the earliest members of the Christian church, who did allow the centrepiece of their belief, their monotheism, to be rethought to include a human being. Furthermore, those closest to Jesus allowed their thinking about the nature of the Messiah, the role of Israel, and the place of the Torah to be radically redefined. Everything they had grown up to believe about YHWH their God, their nation, and how YHWH would act to redeem their nation, was rethought.

For many Jews this was too big a step. So the historical question remains about what event shocked those closest to Jesus into such a complete and unpredictable rethink.
The monotheism of the Jews might have accommodated a spiritual Christ, evolved possibly from the earlier mythical figure of Wisdom. But a living human being claiming to be God incarnated seems absolutely un-Jewish. This may have been a later development, a "bringing down to earth" or historicizing of the original saviour figure, maybe when the movement became predominantly gentile.

The "shocking event" you propose could have been the bar-Kochba revolt in the 130s, the final and utter destruction of the Jewish state. At this point Christianity may have split into Jewish and non-Jewish groups, and the torah-free gospel of the earthly Jesus may have taken over from messianic or gnostic Jews.
But, there is no records even among Church writers where Jews, outside of the Gospel characters, did believe in or worshipped some-one called Jesus as a God who could forgive sin.

Trypho, the Jew, in Justin Martyr's Dialogue with Trypho did not exhibit any belief or mentioned any Jewish teachers that believed in, worshiped or taught that Christ was God with the ability to forgive sin and that Christ was the Creator of heaven and earth.
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Old 10-29-2009, 04:22 PM   #35
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Trypho, the Jew, in Justin Martyr's Dialogue with Trypho did not exhibit any belief or mentioned any Jewish teachers that believed in, worshiped or taught that Christ was God with the ability to forgive sin and that Christ was the Creator of heaven and earth.
Philo taught that the Logos (distinct from the Father) was the creator of the world and a paraclete on behalf of the human race, though.
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Old 10-29-2009, 05:02 PM   #36
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Trypho, the Jew, in Justin Martyr's Dialogue with Trypho did not exhibit any belief or mentioned any Jewish teachers that believed in, worshiped or taught that Christ was God with the ability to forgive sin and that Christ was the Creator of heaven and earth.
Philo taught that the Logos (distinct from the Father) was the creator of the world and a paraclete on behalf of the human race, though.
The LOGOS, not Jesus.

And please show me where Philo wrote that the Logos could have died, and where the Logos shed his blood, or was resurrected to save Jews from their sins while the Jews obeyed the Laws of the God of Moses?





.
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Old 10-29-2009, 11:51 PM   #37
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Philo taught that the Logos (distinct from the Father) was the creator of the world and a paraclete on behalf of the human race, though.
The LOGOS, not Jesus.

And please show me where Philo wrote that the Logos could have died, and where the Logos shed his blood, or was resurrected to save Jews from their sins while the Jews obeyed the Laws of the God of Moses?

.
All that gnostic conjecture can be found detailed in the yellow book of G.R.S. Mead "Fragments of a Faith Forgotten".
Very interesting stuff, but also confusing.
http://www.gnosis.org/library/grs-me...tten/index.htm
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Old 10-29-2009, 11:56 PM   #38
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I bought the book years ago, but now you can read it online.
http://books.google.co.za/books?id=O...age&q=&f=false
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Old 10-30-2009, 05:06 AM   #39
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...I would argue that the claims of non-interpolation are motivated by Christian resistance to treating their sacred texts as products of human history.
Given that textual analysis is his thing, I think it likely that Bart Ehrman deals with issues of authorship/dating in much of his work, but a good introduction would be this (or via: amazon.co.uk)

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Most would not agree with the claim of genuine autobiography, including many Christians.

The consensus among non-evangelicals is that Acts was not written by a companion of Paul, for various reasons that you can find in older threads here or in any standard reference.
Such as the Encyclopaedia Britannica?

St Luke- main
“in Christian tradition, the author of the third Gospel and the Acts of the Apostles, a companion of the Apostle Paul, and the most literary of the New Testament writers.”

St Luke, Life and times.
“If Luke was the author of the third Gospel and the Acts of the Apostles, as is very probable, the course and nature of his ministry may be sketched in more detail. He excludes himself from those who were eyewitnesses of Christ’s ministry. His participation in the Pauline mission, however, is indicated by the use of the first person in the “we” sections of Acts. They reveal that Luke shared in instructing persons in the Christian message and possibly in performing miraculous healings.”

History & Society : :The Acts of the Apostles
“The missionary journeys of St. Paul are given a prominent place, because this close associate of Luke was the preeminent Apostle to the Gentiles. “

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But Acts just does not hold up as history
Again, from the Encyclopaedia Britannica

History & Society : :The Acts of the Apostles
“fifth book of the New Testament, a valuable history of the early Christian church.“
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Old 10-30-2009, 05:07 AM   #40
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Josephus recounts that when he turned 16 (which would be around 53 CE), he wanted to get a feel for the big three philosophies in Judaism. He names the Pharisees, the Sadducees, and the Essenes. Why does Josephus not recount anywhere about any of the miraculous conversions of massive amounts of Jews and Greeks to Christianity that should have been happening in his lifetime? There's no reason at all for trying to use Acts of the Apostles as a source of history yet refuse to use any of the other "Acts of..." that proliferated in the 2nd century.

As for "maranatha", there's no reason to assume that only Christians used this phrase. It simply means "the lord comes". There's no "Jesus" in the phrase, so this would be used by any apocalyptic Jews of the time period. You have yet to provide a reason why non-Christian Jews would refuse to use this phrase in the tumultuous time period of rabid messainism in 1st century Palestine. All of these Jews wanted the lord's kingdom to come, so the phrase "maranatha" would have been in wider use than Christian circles.

While there's no extant full Aramaic of 1 Enoch (an Aramaic 1 Enoch was found in the DSS), Jude quotes the phrase "the lord comes" (v14) from his Greek version of 1 Enoch 2:1, so the phrase "maranatha" might have been in the Aramaic version of 1 Enoch.


Again, for comments on Acts, see my discussion with Toto. The Testimonium Flavianum gets enough debate to which I won't add, but hopefully we can agree that if I can't claim Josephus said, “He drew over to him both many of the Jews and many of the Gentiles”, you can't claim he didn't. And there is always the James the Just reference, which is near universally considered authentic.

On Maranatha- NRSV “Our Lord, come!” {footnote or} “Our Lord has come” (and other translations similarly). The second option would rule out non-Christians, so I will assume the first.

Non- Christian Jews could have used it, and it could have entered the Greek synagogues before Christianity, and then transferred to the new churches. Could have, but it's not likely. Firstly, we have no indication from any sources that maranatha was used in this way in non-Christian Judaism. Secondly, it is a roundabout means of transmission where a much more obvious one (within the church) is available. Thirdly, I don't see the Greek Jews expressing the same enthusiasm about Messianism as the Israel based ones. Fourthly, we know that Paul taught the word “Abba” in a similar way. Fifthly if it was used in the synagogues, it would have been addressed to YHWH, whereas in its Christian context, it is being addressed to Jesus. First century Jews wouldn't have done that- they were more aware of the different roles of YHWH and Jesus than we are.

The Enoch reference is an interesting one, but ultimately fails because neither it nor Jude are using it as an invocation in a religious invocation setting. It's a different kind of phrase.
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