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Old 06-09-2009, 08:36 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by Minimalist View Post
Read a real archaeology book.

There are always charlatans out there willing to get rich by telling the gullible what they want to hear. How else to explain "The Creation Museum?"

I suggest you start with "The Bible Unearthed" by Finkelstein and Silberman, if you dare.
"David and Soloman" by the same guys is good for a more detailed look at the united monarchy.
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Old 06-09-2009, 09:24 AM   #12
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Consider the following arguments that I made at the Evoution/Creation Forum that IamJoseph did not reply to:

http://www.freeratio.org//showthread...267678&page=13

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Message to IamJoseph: You said that the Greeks got their alphabetic writings from the Hebrew. Consider the following:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greek_alphabet

Quote:

"The Greek alphabet is a set of twenty-four letters that has been used to write the Greek language since the late 9th or early 8th century BCE. It is the first and oldest alphabet in the narrow sense that it notes each vowel and consonant with a separate symbol. It is as such in continuous use to this day. The letters were also used to represent Greek numerals, beginning in the 2nd century BCE.

"The Greek alphabet is descended from the Phoenician alphabet, and is not related to Linear B or the Cypriot syllabary, earlier writing systems for Greek. It has given rise to many other alphabets used in Europe and the Middle East, including the Latin alphabet. In addition to being used for writing Modern Greek, its letters are today used as symbols in mathematics and science, particle names in physics, as names of stars, in the names of fraternities and sororities, in the naming of supernumerary tropical cyclones, and for other purposes.

"Vowel signs were originally not used in Semitic alphabets. Whereas in the earlier West Semitic family of scripts (Phoenician, Hebrew, Moabite etc.) a letter always stood for a consonant in association with an unspecified vowel or no vowel; because these languages were Semitic, they lost no legibility in having no vowels, as Semitic words are based on triliteral roots that make meaning clear with only the consonants present, and vowels are clear from context. Greek, however, is an Indo-European language, and thus differences in vowels make for vast differences in meanings. Thus the Greek alphabet divided the letters into two categories, consonants ("things that sound along") and vowels, where the consonant letters always had to be accompanied by vowels to create a pronounceable unit. Although the old Ugaritic alphabet did develop matres lectionis, i.e., use of consonant letters to denote vowels, they were never employed systematically."

Johnny Skeptic:

Regarding "The Greek alphabet is descended from the Phoenician alphabet," consider the following:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phoenician_alphabet

Quote:

"When the Phoenician alphabet was first uncovered in the 19th century, its origins were unknown. Scholars at first believed that the script was a direct variation of Egyptian hieroglyphs. This idea was especially popular due to the recent decipherment of hieroglyphs. However, scholars could not find any link between the two writing systems. Certain scholars hypothesized ties with Hieratic, Cuneiform, or even an independent creation, perhaps inspired by some other writing system. The theories of independent creation ranged from the idea of a single man conceiving it to the Hyksos people forming it from corrupt Egyptian.

"In January 1855 a Phoenician inscription in twenty-two lines was found among the ruins of Sidon. Each line contained about forty or fifty characters. A facsimile copy of the writing was published in United States Magazine in July 1855. Laborers working for a Turkish employer made the discovery. The inscription was on the lid of a large stone sarcophagus carved in fine Egyptian style. The writing was primarily a genealogical history of a king of Sidon buried in the sarcophagus. It was in the ancient Hebrew language except for a few words. The inscription was published in modern Hebrew by a professor at Yale University.

"With the discovery of the Proto-Sinaitic alphabet, scientists discovered the missing link between Egyptian hieroglyphs and the Proto-Canaanite script. This discovery reinforced the earlier hypothesis of Phoenician's Egyptian origin. The Proto-Sinaitic script was in use from ca. 1500 BC in the Sinai and the Levant, probably by early West Semitic speakers. In Canaan it developed into the Proto-Canaanite alphabet from ca. 1400 BC, adapted to writing a Canaanite (Northwest Semitic) language.

"The Phoenician alphabet seamlessly continues the Proto-Canaanite alphabet, by convention called Phoenician from the mid 11th century, where it is first attested on inscribed bronze arrowheads. Phoenician became the widespread form of Proto-Canaanite; previously, the script had been restricted to recording only Canaanite languages."

Johnny Skeptic:

Please note "With the discovery of the Proto-Sinaitic alphabet, scientists discovered the missing link between Egyptian hieroglyphs and the Proto-Canaanite script. This discovery reinforced the earlier hypothesis of Phoenician's Egyptian origin."

Would you like to claim that the Egyptians got their writings from the Hebrew?

Would you like to claim that the Sumerians got their cuneiform writings from the Hebrew? Consider the following:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cuneiform

Quote:

"Cuneiform script (pronounced /kjuːˈniː.ɨfɔrm/ kew-NEE-i-form or /ˈkjuːnɨfɔrm/ KEW-ni-form) is one of the earliest known forms of written expression. Emerging in Sumer around the 30th century BC, with predecessors reaching into the late 4th millennium (the Uruk IV period), cuneiform writing began as a system of pictographs. In the course of the 3rd millennium BC the pictorial representations became simplified and more abstract."

Johnny Skeptic:

When do you date the invention of the Hebrew alphabet?

Whatever intellectual abilties ancient Hebrews had might have been largely due to intermarrying with other cultures. In addition, the abilities of the Hebrews were nowhere near the abilities of the Greeks regarding science, philosophy, and art. Greeks were an important part of the Greco-Roman Empire, which by comparison with what Hebrews accomplished, is barely worth mentioning.
I and other skeptics made many other arguments in that thread that IamJoseph did not reply to even though he was the one who first brought up most of the issues.
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Old 06-09-2009, 10:12 AM   #13
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Ostracons and the Pomegranate
There are a few archaeologically discovered artifacts from the first Temple's operative era which make specific reference to Solomon's House of the Lord. One of these is known as the Temple Ostracon, which resides in the Israel Museum, Jerusalem. This pottery shard from about 800 BC (in the Jerusalem reign of King Joash of Judah) clearly mentions, in old Hebrew, the Temple of the 'Bayit Yahweh' - the Jerusalem House of the Lord.

House of the Lord Inscription
Another ostracon referenced by the Biblical Archaeology Review (November/December 1997) is a tax receipt written on a clay tablet in respect of a subscription of 3 shekels to the House of the Lord. It comes from much the same period as the Temple Ostracon, when the Jewish people were obliged to contribute towards the House of Yahweh's infrastructure by way of a Temple tax.
A particularly interesting artifact from the Solomon Temple reign of King Uzziah of Judah, c. 750 BC, is a small ivory pomegranate - vase shaped with a long neck and petals. Around its shoulder, in an early Hebrew script, is inscribed "Sacred donation for the priests of the House of the Lord ". Like the Temple Ostracon and the David Tablet, this item is also held at the Israel Museum.
Both the Joash inscription and the pomegranate went through the hands of Oded Golan. What is the latest on their authenticity?

In any case, neither mention Solomon. They mention a temple. I have no problem accepting there was some kind of temple of YHWH in Jerusalem, just like there was one in Ber-Sheba and in Arad. I have no problem accepting the temple started as a High Place and got gradually upgraded, especially after the fall of Samaria and the increase in Judah's population due to influx of refugees. What I find unsupported is that pre-exilic Jerusalem ever controlled the northern part of Palestine, let alone the empire David and Solomon supposedly ruled over, or that before Hezekiah Jerusalem was of any economic, cultural or military significance.

As for pre-monarchic times, there may be some grains of truth in the descriptions of the political atmosphere and social conditions in the book of Judges or 1 Samuel, but I doubt the details are accurate. The history claimed before that, of slavery, the exodus and Joshua's conquest are completely unsupported.
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Old 06-09-2009, 11:03 AM   #14
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Originally Posted by Anat View Post
...
Both the Joash inscription and the pomegranate went through the hands of Oded Golan. What is the latest on their authenticity?

....
I think everyone except Hershel Shanks considers them to be modern forgeries.

The Crisis of Modern Epigraphic Forgeries and the Antiquities Market: A Palaeographer Reflects on the Problem and Proposes Protocols for the Field by Christopher A. Rollston

Quote:
Forgers often produce inscriptions with sensational contents (e.g., Moussaieff Ostraca, Jehoash Inscription, Ivory Pomegranate), perhaps because these create enormous interest (and irrational exuberance) and yield high selling prices. Forgers are beginning to produce patinas that appear ancient (Jehoash Inscription, Moussaieff Ostraca)...
More details at that link.
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Old 06-09-2009, 11:07 AM   #15
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Originally Posted by IamJoseph
I have reservations the Phoenecian is older than the Hebrew.......
Why is that?

Quote:
Originally Posted by IamJoseph
I have encountered references that the Greeks themselves admit they got their alphabeticals from the Hebrew.......
Please post your sources. I know, you don't really have any.

When do you date the invention of the Hebrew language?

As I showed in my post #12, there are good reasons to believe that Egyptians and Sumerians had writings long before Hebrews did. Even if Hebrews invented writing, would that indicate to you that the Hebrew God exists?

Ancient Greeks most certainly did not get their impressive scientific achievements from ancient Hebrews. Ancient Hebrews had a very minimal understanding of science compared with ancient Greeks.
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Old 06-09-2009, 11:10 AM   #16
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Originally Posted by IamJoseph View Post
The Temple Pomegranate
The Joash Tablet
Recently, the press and media have been discussing another inscribed tablet that was discovered in the summer of 2000 at Jerusalem's Temple Mount. The find was made by Islamic Trust renovators of the El-Aqsa mosque which occupies part of the Haram el Sharif (Noble Sanctuary) site, and the tablet is know held by an Israeli collector.
Partially broken, the Arkosic Dead Sea sandstone tablet measures 31 x 24 x 7 cms, and carries 15 lines of text written in ancient Hebrew with elements of Aramaic and old Phoenician. It describes repairs to Solomon's Temple as ordered by Solomon's descendant, King Joash of Judah in the 9th century BC.
Joash (Jehoash) reigned about 839-799 BC and, in accord with this, carbon-14 dating by Israel's Geological Institute, under Shimon Ilani, has authenticated the inscription as being around 2,800 years old. The Institute's director, Amos Bean, reported that they had discovered flecks of gold burnt into the stone, indicating that it was probably in the Temple when the building was destroyed by invading Babylonians in about 586 BC.
In line with the Bible text of 2-Kings 12:1-6 and 11-17, the tablet describes how the King instructed the priests to "take holy money … to buy quarry stones and timber and copper and labour to carry out the duty with faith."
I was just looking at this. King Joash was an interesting character.

To my surprise, it turns out this may be a forgery:

http://www.religioustolerance.org/chr_joash.htm

Quote:
Arrest on charges of forgery:
Oden Golan is the current owner of the James ossuary, and was the individual who introduced the Yehoash inscription to the world. He was arrested on 2003-JUL-22 by Israeli police on suspicion of forging and dealing in fake antiquities. 15 "In court, police unveiled equipment they said was found in Golan's home, including stencils, stones and partly completed forgeries." 16 Golan has denied that he is a forger. "Despite the findings, Golan insisted that the artifacts were authentic. He was unavailable for comment because he was in police custody." 15
This reminds of Scarface:

Quote:
I think you speak from the heart,
IAMJoseph. But I say to myself...

...you quote chivatos like that... So I think to myself...

...how many other mistakes has this guy made?

How can I trust your references?
You tell me, IAMJoseph.
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Old 06-09-2009, 11:44 AM   #17
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Laurence_Gardner, author of IamJoseph's source.

Googling him brings up an interesting blog, PaleoBabble, devoted to debunking people like him.

"Laurence Gardner, that pseudo-ancient text researcher of Jesus bloodline nonsense fame. . . "
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Old 06-09-2009, 11:58 AM   #18
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Originally Posted by IamJoseph View Post
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IAMJoseph countered my suggestion that the Phoenician/Hebrew alphabet may have spread to Greece by Phoenician trading ships by mentioning the navy of King Solomon..
I cannot recall the context of the navy discussion, but it was not as an evidence relating to how longuage spread. As the Hebrew was always an alphabetical script, I asked for evidence of a Greek alphabetical writings older than the Hebrew - this was my logical question here, and it is an obvious requirement.
Yep, Hebrew was more-or-less always written in alphabetic format - because it borrowed the Aramaic alphabet wholesale during the period of the Kingdom of Israel (920-721 BCE). Before that, it used an older Semite scirpt that lacked vowels (it was an abjad). Please recall, Joseph, that the written form of a language does NOT appear automatically when the spoken version does, and languages often borrow the alphabet of a parent language or popular language, then change the letter forms over time.

Quote:
Originally Posted by IamJoseph View Post
However, as there is a widesread notion the Phoenecian is older than the Hebrew, both being alphabetical, there is also the notion the greek came from the phoenecian, and thereby older than the Hebrew. I have reservations the phoenecian is older than the Hebrew, despite it being an older nation, and I have not encountered any greek alphabetical writings older than the Hebrew. I have encountered references that the Greeks themselves admit they got their alphabeticals from the Hebrew, when the Septuagint was translated in 300 BCE; then I found a back-up for this in a 2000 year writings of Josephus, which describes this history, which was then only 300 years prior to his time, and that he had access to Greek and Roman archives when he wrote.
I gave you a whole web-page full of Greek texts in another thread, many of which predate 300 BCE. The authors of most were long dead by 300 BCE. Principal case in point - Homer. That you refuse to admit they exist is your problem, not a valid arguement.

Quote:
Originally Posted by IamJoseph View Post
With regard the phoenecien and hebrew, a coin was discovered one month ago, dated 2900 years, and contains Hebrew alphabetical writings, with the name of a Hebrew king. This tells me that the Hebrew was already well established here, because a coin is a representation of a country's state of culture. I know of no such equivalence of the phonecien, which is a language which does not contain some of the alphabets in the Hebrew [e.g. 'V'], indicating either that the Hebrew is older, or that it contains independent imprints not from the phonecian, or that they both come from an older, singular language.
You've got a step missing in the evolution (I know, bad word) of the Hebrew language - it should be: Phoenician -> Aramaic -> Hebrew. The writing system shows roughly the same progression. Ancient Aramaic first appears around 1100 BCE, well before the founding of Israel and Judah.

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Originally Posted by IamJoseph View Post
The other problem is there are no Phoenecian books, as with the Hebrew, which has copious, advanced grammar and historical depictions, approx 100 years apart, its narrative datings being over 3000 years old: why is this so? It really does not matter which is older, as both are listed among the first three oldest alphabetical writings - but this subject is important from a bigger picture for humanity as a whole, and much of ancient history is distorted when reading only from European views.
Older language + vanished culture = less chance of finding writings. There have been texts found in the Punic dialect of Phoenician, and tomb inscritions in Phoenician (some rather long). Hebrew only appears to pop up with a fully formed grammer and alphabet if you ignore the intermediate step between it and Phoenician, namely Aramaic. You yourself are distorting things by ignoring that step...how you can completely ignore the 'lingua franca' of the period is beyond me. As far as being among the three oldest alphabetical writings...well, I think you are placing entirely too much weight on the whole "alphabetic" part of it; we have many syllabic writings that date back long before any of the above mentioned systems (cases in point: heiratic and cuneiform). So what is so special about a nation that had a language that grew out of an older, borrowed the parent's writing system, and used both? Worse, they didn't do anything all that original with those tools - they recorded their myths, and a very self-serving version of history.
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Old 06-09-2009, 12:13 PM   #19
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Thanks, Toto.
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Old 06-09-2009, 12:19 PM   #20
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..., a coin was discovered one month ago, dated 2900 years, and contains Hebrew alphabetical writings, with the name of a Hebrew king.
Seriously? Hope it wasn't dated 900 BCE. Anybody of aware of this?
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