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07-12-2011, 02:51 AM | #161 | ||
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Firstly - It is not a personal claim - it's a 3rd person claim, added later by some person or persons unknown, saying "we" and "his", not "I" and "mine". And - It is not actually a claim to have seen Jesus while he was alive - it's claim that the beloved disciple testified and wrote the Gospel (thus merely implying he did see Jesus.) In fact, there is NOT ONE authentic claim to have personally met Jesus in the entire NT (apart from the 2nd C. forgery 2 Peter.) Instead we have claims and traditions, and twisted interpretations - such as saying the "we" and "his" discussed above are some sort of royal "we", or that it shows "John's" humility or some such nonsense. If Jesus HAD existed, then we would certainly have stories about personally meeting Jesus. And the disciples' power and prestige would depend on how close they had been to Jesus, on how long they had spent following Jesus, on how early they had joined Jesus etc. Which is exactly what we see in examples such as Mohamed or H.P. Blavatsky and many more. Instead we get NOTHING of any such personal connection to Jesus - none of the early Christians ever met Jesus (or Mary or Joseph or Lazarus or Joseph of Arimathea or Martha or anyone else IN the stories.) The best we get is Paul - who had a vision of Christ; and 1 John who also had some sort of spiritual vision - that god is light etc. It's pretty obvious there simply was no historical Jesus at the start of all this. Kapyong |
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07-12-2011, 02:54 AM | #162 |
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07-12-2011, 05:55 AM | #163 | |||
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If somebody wants to come here and point to things which people have posted to this board and explain how they're supposed to be fallacious, that's a contribution to discussion. If somebody wants to come here and quote from published books or articles and then explain how the material quoted is fallacious argument, that's a contribution to discussion. If somebody says 'some people have said things which are fallacious, but I'm not going to show you or tell you what they said', the status of that as a contribution to discussion is open to doubt. |
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07-12-2011, 06:05 AM | #164 | ||||||||
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Once again you demonstrate that you are talking about LOGICAL FALLACIES without KNOWING what they are. Quote:
There is NOTHING LOGICALLY FALLACIOUS about assuming that they were NOT myths or fables. |
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07-12-2011, 06:07 AM | #165 | |||
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07-12-2011, 06:14 AM | #166 |
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But I honestly don't know what the capital of Brazil is! I know it's not New York City or Quebec or Melbourne, though. Am I wrong?
My point in making that analogy was to show that I don't have to know everything about X in order to ask for evidence that X is Y. So, one does not need to look at the entirety of scholarship regarding the historical (or not) Jesus in order to ask for evidence of specific logical fallacies. You don't get to say, "How do you know they DIDN'T commit logical fallacies if you haven't READ and UNDERSTOOD everything they wrote?" because you're the one who made the claim to begin with. Ironically, it's the same sort of fallacious reasoning that would lead someone to say "How do you know there WASN'T a historical Jesus if you weren't THERE in the FIRST CENTURY?" Rightfully, a reasonable person would say, no, that's not how it works, you have to provide me with a good basis to believe it beyond that! We are just asking you to provide one example, just one, of a statement you think is logically fallacious. It would be nice to attribute it to somebody specific, and explain what error in reasoning was committed. |
07-12-2011, 06:35 AM | #167 | |||||
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07-12-2011, 06:49 AM | #168 | ||||||
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WHAT YOU DON"T GET is that ALL of the stuff you require is subjective. What is credible? How many sources? How many non-conflicting sources? It is ALL SUBJECTIVE AA!! It all comes down to figuring what SEEMS probable. That's why your claim of 'illogical fallacy' ALSO comes down to your own subjective opinions. It is an empty claim IMO, and MOST people would say as JD has been trying to this whole thread, that opinions without absolute logical proof to the contrary do not constitute 'illogical fallacies'. Quote:
As I predicted, your mantra continues and continues and continues.. I bowing out of the thread now because, unlike JD, I don't like repeating the same arguments with you over and over and getting nowhere with you. Have a nice day. |
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07-12-2011, 07:05 AM | #169 | ||||
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The status of that as a contribution to discussion is open to doubt. It's about as vacuous as the evidence for the historical jesus. |
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07-12-2011, 08:04 AM | #170 | |
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About all I comprehend, is that the two are not synonyms, a concept not only alien to my humble way of thinking, but also counter-intuitive from my perspective, since I assume that "fallacious" means "deliberately erroneous". I am wondering whether this terminological quandary has its origin in my having a mere, public, secondary school education, or, possessing a genetic predisposition to working class notions, or to having grown up on the wrong side of the pond. For instance, spin (and Pete, and others too, I am sure) and I completely disagree about his use of the word "retroject", which he writes to communicate "project" about past events, clearly not the proper definition, since retroject is a medical term, well known to all health care practitioners familiar with urology, and has nothing whatsoever to do with neurology, nor with thinking per se, (since neurons communicate by projection.) Another example, is spin's misuse of the word "falsify", which for me, (perhaps uniquely on this forum, at least) always connotes the probability of fraud, (unfortunately all too common in studying biblical texts,) but which spin, and others, employ to explain the concept of "refute". So, it may well be, that my uncustomary notions of language, explain my inability to grasp the concepts you are trying to explain, here, in this thread. It would be instructive, at least for me, if you could explain, using any one of aa5874's (many) examples, i.e. passages from the gospels, how that particular passage should have been written, 2000 years ago, in order to qualify, today, as "logically fallacious", instead of simply (deliberately) "illogical". Perhaps, in that manner, it will be possible for everyone to benefit, since it appears that some folks are irritated by the seeming repetitiveness of the submissions to this thread, even though, others (i.e.--ME) remain hopelessly mired in the mud, trying to grasp at what appear to be mind numbing vocabulary constraints. The goal, it seems to me, ought to be to clarify whether or not those forum members, (thanks to Chaucer, for answering J-D's question!!) who posit faith in the concept of an historical Jesus, with or without the gospel fantasy/myth/demons/supernatural nonsense, can, or should, or ought, to be able to claim support for their position using the gospels. In particular, J-D, I hope you could focus attention on how something can be concurrently both deliberately illogical, and nevertheless, still possible. Earlier in this thread, (page three perhaps) I inquired about this, but thus far, there has been no response. I inquired how a man born with no legs (thalidomide) could receive bilateral amputation of the lower extremities? At least in the realm of computers, where I feel a tad more comfortable, it is not unlikely that a computer program will fail to execute to completion, if the memory is insufficient. It is IMPOSSIBLE. There is no circumstance where an 8 gigabyte file created in 2011, will fit on a single, double density, 8 inch diameter, 80 kilobyte floppy disk, manufactured by IBM in 1971. In ancient times, scribes encountering this dilemma, either modified the text, or wrote with smaller handwriting...... avi |
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