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Old 09-25-2011, 09:27 PM   #211
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...Plutarch says that it is possible for parts of a mythological story to be historically true. ('This narrative for the most part given by Fabius and Diocles of Peparethus, who seem to be the earliest historians of the foundation of Rome, is suspected by some, because of its dramatic and fictitious appearance; but it would not wholly be disbelieved, if men would remember what a poet fortune sometimes shows herself, and consider that the Roman power would hardly have reached so high a pitch without a divinely ordered origin, attended with great and extraordinary circumstances.') Is that what you are saying?
I am saying that ANCIENT MYTHOLOGY is relevant to ANCIENT HISTORY.

I really don't know what you are saying because it does NOT make much sense.
I am asking you a question.

This is the question: HOW is ancient mythology relevant to ancient history?

I really don't know whether you are having trouble understanding what the word 'HOW' means.
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Old 09-25-2011, 09:29 PM   #212
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There were no real historicists until the modern era. The NT was written and edited by people for whom Jesus was divine. You persist in calling people who thought that Jesus was god "historicists" as if they thought historically.
This comment seems designed to portray the orthodoxy as having no interest in Jesus' historical life as described in the gospels. Such a portrayal can then be used to minimize any controversy that may have existed between groups that did not believe that the Jesus of the gospels existed and groups that did.
I don't understand what you mean by "minimize."
I would suggest consulting a dictionary.


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However, we have clear evidence of the marcion, docetic, and gnostic controversies about the nature of Jesus' flesh. And, we have clear evidence that the differences between gospel account of marcion with orthodoxy were highly controversial.
They were controversial for theological reasons.
This appears to be one of your favorite responses these days. Since the nature of Jesus' flesh was important for 'theological reasons', any claims that a purely divine Jesus wasn't really purely divine and had come in the flesh would also have been important for 'theological reasons', I would assume. Would you not?

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Why should we then NOT expect there to be evidence from a slightly earlier period of the gospel accounts being accepted as allegorical only, or being rejected outright by the Pauline Christians? Why would Valentinus, said to be a student of Theudas who in turn was a student of St. Paul, show no awareness of the heretical nature of the gospel accounts if Paul had never preached such a Jesus. Instead according to http://www.gnosis.org/library/valent...ntinianism.htm Valentinus seemingly accepted Mary as mother, Jesus' baptism by John the Baptist, and a one year of teaching ministry. He is seen as both human and divine, and there appears to be no controversy regarding events and characters mentioned in the gospels:

How could it be possible for Valentinus, the student of Paul's student, to have not rejected the gospels as heretical writings? How could he have accepted theology that was completely at odds with Paul's non-earthly, pre-existent, divine Jesus? How could he have accepted as historical gospels which never even mentioned Paul, but consistently showed Jesus' favoritism of twelve disciples, some of which went on, according to the history, to found the Church?
See Valentinian Scriptural Interpretation
Members of the Valentinian school rejected the way most of their contemporary Christians interpreted the Bible as being overly literal. In their view, the Bible has to be interpreted in a spiritual manner. In some cases, the literal teaching is the spiritual meaning. e.g. the Sermon on the Mount. But for other, passages, the true spiritual meaning lay hidden behind the literal text in allegorical symbols. Valentinians claimed to have the secret to unlocking this hidden spiritual meaning. They supported these conclusions by citing Jesus himself: "The knowledge about the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but to the rest it comes by means of parables so that they may look but not see and listen but not understand"(Luke 8:9-10 cf. Irenaeus Against Heresies 1:3:1). According to the Valentinian tradition, Paul and the other apostles revealed these teachings only to those who were 'spiritually mature' (1 Corinthians 2:6). They identified their own teaching with these secret teachings that Jesus taught the to the apostles.

...

In their view, the Bible and all of the events and characters within it had to be read as metaphors that pointed to a higher reality. Literalist interpretation acts as a barrier to true understanding. As on writer said, "Truth did not come into the world naked; rather it came in prototypes and images: the world will not accept it in any other form" (Gospel of Philip 67:9-12). The Gospels and all of the events described in them "are representations of ones in that other realm" (Ir1:7:2) and are "a symbol and a dispensation for the conversion and salvation of humanity" (Acts of John 102). Valentinians treated the Bible as an allegory that disclosed an inner process of redemption in metaphors.
..which simply says that they found deeper and hidden meanings in the teachings of Jesus. It doesn't say they disregarded the historicity. As stated above, they still believed in the historical issues--Jesus was born of Mary, baptized by JTB, had a ministry of teaching with disciples, appeared to them. 'Allegory', to them, doesn't mean "didn't happen".

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It just doesn't add up Toto.
That's because you have imposed your own modern mindset on the issue. You think that there must have been a vast difference between believing that Jesus existed in real historical time, or not, because that is an important issue in our materialist age. The ancients were not necessarily materialists.
The early church orthodoxy--Justin, Ireneaus, Tertullian, all seem to prove this claim you keep making to be patently wrong. They were very interested in the historicity of the claims of the gospels, the tradition of history, the apostolic teaching. They had what you call a 'modern mindset on the issue'. Are you saying that people 50 years prior didn't?




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And why do you refuse to capitalize my name?
I'm not sure why I was doing that. Many here have names that are not capitalized, so perhaps that is why. It is not intentional, and I'll try to be more careful.
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Old 09-25-2011, 09:38 PM   #213
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There were no real historicists until the modern era. The NT was written and edited by people for whom Jesus was divine. You persist in calling people who thought that Jesus was god "historicists" as if they thought historically.
How many times do we have to go through this? No, I persist in calling them "historicists" to designate that they thought that Jesus was historical. I agree that they didn't think "historically". In fact, I actually claim this as one of my points against Doherty. Early Christians showed a lack of sense of history. They not only gave few (if any) details about a historical Jesus, but they gave few historical details about anything. As I have said in the past, if they had given us historical details about the early church but nothing about Jesus, that would be one thing. But the lack of historical details about anything points to "something going on" back then that needs to be taken into consideration when evaluating early writings.

As I quoted Doherty from J:NGNM (my emphasis):
Another aspect is the fact that in almost all the [Second Century] apologists we find a total lack of a sense of history. They do not talk of their religion as an ongoing movement with a specific century of development behind it, through a beginning in time, place and circumstances, and a spread in similar specifics. Some of them pronounce it to be very "old" and they look back to roots in the Jewish prophets rather than to the life of a recent historical Jesus. In this, of course, they are much like the 1st century epistle writers. (Page 477)
We would expect that they should have written a different way, and even call it "human nature" to back that up. But clearly the evidence doesn't support it. The evidence supports that the "historicist" Christians didn't have a sense of history in the same way we might expect today.
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Old 09-25-2011, 10:55 PM   #214
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As I quoted Doherty from J:NGNM (my emphasis):
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Another aspect is the fact that in almost all the [Second Century] apologists we find a total lack of a sense of history. They do not talk of their religion as an ongoing movement with a specific century of development behind it, through a beginning in time, place and circumstances, and a spread in similar specifics. Some of them pronounce it to be very "old" and they look back to roots in the Jewish prophets rather than to the life of a recent historical Jesus. In this, of course, they are much like the 1st century epistle writers. (Page 477)
The majority of the second century apologists do indeed lack a sense of history in regard to their movement. That is because it had none, at least not in the sense based on the Gospel events which you are imposing on their background, even though their texts contain not the slightest reference or hint of it, even though they have declared that it does not, in that most of them have said that in describing their religion they have gone into minute detail and included everything there is to tell. You have made Theophilus, Athenagoras, Minucius Felix, early Tatian, out to be liars, deceivers, and making false statements to the emperors to whom they are writing (and who would have been well aware of that fact had the Christian movement indeed begun with an historical Jesus). Is this your idea of prima facie reading, Don? A writer tells you he has given a complete description of his faith and your prima facie reading of him is to regard him as having concealed central information, of having lied to the pagan reader and discredited himself to the Christian one? Minucius Felix heaps scorn on the idea of worshiping a crucified and mortal criminal, and your prima facie reading is to claim that he means the direct opposite?

Of course, we know why you adopt this strategy. If those apologists are so silent and yet did in fact believe in an HJ (because you have imposed it on them), you can use this fabricated position to offer the same interpretation of Paul and the other epistle writers of the first century, who were silent virtually to the same degree on an historical figure as the originator of their faith and object of worship.

This is so like Ehrman and other NT scholars who dismiss a silence in one set of documents by appealing to the same silence in another set! Disturbed by the silence in Q on a death and resurrection for Jesus? Not to worry! We find the same silence in the Gospel of Thomas! Problem solved. A writer like James has reams of Gospel Jesus-like sayings in his epistle without the slightest attribution to him. So what? All the other epistles are equally silent about their Jesus-like sayings. Another problem solved. Hallelujah! We can sleep at nights. Multiple silences make a noise! And we can read that noise as anything we want!

Don, you and your ilk on this board have become pathetic. You are a transparent joke. Just as “archibald” declares he can recognize nothing in my recent list of prima facie mythicist readings. Not Hebrews 10:37 which quotes a famous prophecy that the Coming One will come soon, and ignores the fact that he had already been here. Or how Titus 1:2-3 says that the first action on God’s ancient promises has been taken in the apostolic movement of which Paul was a part. Or how ancient and many modern commentators have recognized “the rulers of this age” as a technical reference to the demon spirits, forcing Origen and those who came after him to suggest that Paul really meant the demons working through earthly rulers, even though he never mentions those rulers. Or how Romans 16:25-27 declares that the Christ Paul preaches after long ages of being unknown has been revealed through scripture. And so on. Are all these texts prima facie about an historical Jesus? I guess after you’ve subjected them to the contortions and strained interpretations to twist them away from their obvious meanings (not to be confused with claims about unquestioningly applying modern meanings to individual words, another favorite historicist tactic), then they become prima facie about an historical figure. I know that NT scholarship has a long history of such methodology, so you’re part of a hallowed tradition which has managed to deceive itself into thinking that such procedures are valid. (Religion is a privileged field where anything goes, I guess, even for declared historicist atheists.)

Now, maybe Archibald and others haven’t been around long enough to start feeling a tad embarrassed about flaunting their locked minds and blatant shenanigans of this sort, but you certainly have, Don. You’re a fixture here and elsewhere, you’ve given us years of this kind of deviousness and porcine-cephalic balderdash, despite being called on it time after time, which never seems to make any impact on you whatsoever. By now, of course, we are well aware you have no shame, and that’s certainly an asset for anyone determined no matter what to defend the indefensible.

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Old 09-25-2011, 11:47 PM   #215
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I don't understand what you mean by "minimize."
I would suggest consulting a dictionary.
OK, smartie, I know what "minimize" means, but your usage does not make any sense.

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... Since the nature of Jesus' flesh was important for 'theological reasons', any claims that a purely divine Jesus wasn't really purely divine and had come in the flesh would also have been important for 'theological reasons', I would assume. Would you not?
This also makes no sense. The orthodox believed that Jesus was purely divine and had come "in the flesh" - whatever that meant.

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..which simply says that they found deeper and hidden meanings in the teachings of Jesus. It doesn't say they disregarded the historicity. As stated above, they still believed in the historical issues--Jesus was born of Mary, baptized by JTB, had a ministry of teaching with disciples, appeared to them. 'Allegory', to them, doesn't mean "didn't happen".
That's not what the section I quoted to you says, based on the work of Elaine Pagels. Allegory as applied to a story typically means that it didn't necessarily happen.

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The early church orthodoxy--Justin, Ireneaus, Tertullian, all seem to prove this claim you keep making to be patently wrong. They were very interested in the historicity of the claims of the gospels, the tradition of history, the apostolic teaching. They had what you call a 'modern mindset on the issue'. Are you saying that people 50 years prior didn't?
They were not historians. They repeated the stories as dogma, including the supernatural bits. They didn't go looking for the birthplace of Jesus or his tomb. By the time they wrote, any historical Jesus was unrecoverable in any case.
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Old 09-25-2011, 11:51 PM   #216
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...
How many times do we have to go through this? No, I persist in calling them "historicists" to designate that they thought that Jesus was historical. I agree that they didn't think "historically"....
But they didn't think that Jesus was historical. They thought that he was pre-existent and a supernatural entity, the alpha and omega. So just call them orthodox, or proto-orthodox, or be clear about what they believed and why.
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Old 09-25-2011, 11:54 PM   #217
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But they didn't think that Jesus was historical.
Lewis Carroll could not have put it better.
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Old 09-25-2011, 11:58 PM   #218
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But they didn't think that Jesus was historical.
Lewis Carroll could not have put it better.

Scary.
What's scary? What is your understanding of "historical?"
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Old 09-26-2011, 12:07 AM   #219
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What's scary? What is your understanding of "historical?"
This is quite breathtaking.

Mine, I am guessing, is the usual one. Pertaining to an event which took place, or is seen as having done. Including figures seen as having existed.

For example, Sabbatai Zevi.
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Old 09-26-2011, 12:10 AM   #220
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Toto, we are not investigating Jesus' supposed divinity.
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