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Old 03-16-2012, 08:48 PM   #101
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Because you say so?
Because nobody has proved otherwise.
So, whatever has not been proved false should be assumed true.
Why?
You tell me.
Why?

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You're the one suggesting we should believe something just because "nobody has proved otherwise."
That's not what you wrote, though.
Let's try it this way. Here are two statements:

(1) Whatever has not been proved false should be assumed true.
(2) If a certain statement has never been proved false, we ought to believe it.

Now, do you or do you not agree with either of those statements?
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Old 03-16-2012, 09:00 PM   #102
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So what is the primary cause of somebody talking to Satan?

Hallucinogens.


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And do historians declare that somebody talking to Satan can't be assumed to be fiction?
Only if they are biblical historians.

These people have the INSIDE information.
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Old 03-17-2012, 03:09 AM   #103
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Secondly the idea that telling a group of people that claims for which they believe they have strong evidence are ruled out on a-priori grounds, no matter how strong their evidence, seems unlikely to be a strategy for peacefully settling disputes. Even if strong methodological naturalism were valid it seems unlikely to be effective in promoting genuine dialogue between people of differing world-views.
It would be counterproductive for scientific method take any notioce of "worldviews."

All magic can and should be ruled out a priori from any kind of empirical examination/ Let's be adults here. There is no such thing as magic. There is zero reason ever to humor the possibility. It is counterproductive, anti-scientific and anti-intellectual to do so.
What I said was:
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Even if strong methodological naturalism were valid it seems unlikely to be effective in promoting genuine dialogue between people of differing world-views.
If you want to persuade people, for example, that their belief that an illness is the result of witchcraft is false, then you are more likely to succeed if you concentrate on providing evidence that this particular illness or type of illness has a naturalistic explanation, than if you repudiate a-priori the very possibility of witchcraft.

You may feel that the price being paid here for genuine dialogue is too high but that is another issue.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 03-17-2012, 03:23 AM   #104
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Secondly the idea that telling a group of people that claims for which they believe they have strong evidence are ruled out on a-priori grounds, no matter how strong their evidence, seems unlikely to be a strategy for peacefully settling disputes.
So it was wrong to lock up those Christians who killed a teenager because they thought he was a witch?

We should have dialogued with them, professing agnosticism as to the possibility of the boy really being a witch (after all, he did confess to being a witch)
In the recent tragic case to which you are alluding, the man involved seems so mentally unwell as to raise special issues.

In the general case; there are clearly occasions in which the appropriate response to someone doing bad things as a result of sincere but erroneous views is to lock them up to stop them doing any more bad things.

This is not confined to people doing bad things as a result of erroneous supernatural views. A more everyday example is people believing they are entitled to act as vigilantes in cases where they are dissatisfied with official responses to some crime.

However locking up sincere but misguided people is unlikely to convince them or their sympathizers that they are in the wrong.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 03-17-2012, 03:26 AM   #105
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While a responsible historian has a duty to tell the general public that the 'Da Vinci Code' has no historical value?
Is this publication intended to have historical value?
The author intended it.

And it was shown to be false. :constern01:

Just like another book about Jesus.
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Old 03-17-2012, 05:39 AM   #106
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While a responsible historian has a duty to tell the general public that the 'Da Vinci Code' has no historical value?
Is this publication intended to have historical value?
The author intended it.
Can we see evidence?
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Old 03-17-2012, 05:32 PM   #107
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While a responsible historian has a duty to tell the general public that the 'Da Vinci Code' has no historical value?
Is this publication intended to have historical value?
The author intended it.
Can we see evidence?
wow really.

http://lmgtfy.com/?q=does+dan+brown+...+to+be+true%3F

While it's hard to say what Dan Brown actually believes because he's purposefully vague about it, he has been quoted as saying he wouldn't change a thing about the Da Vinci Code if he was to put it non-fiction.

And in case your afraid of the link:

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On the ABC News Special “Jesus, Mary, and Da Vinci,” which aired on November 3, 2003, the book’s author, Dan Brown, proclaimed himself a believer in these things. In an interview on “Good Morning America” the day of the special, he declared that if he had been asked to write a piece of nonfiction on these things, he would change nothing about what he claimed in the novel.
So yes, once again, the author intended it!
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Old 03-17-2012, 06:27 PM   #108
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While a responsible historian has a duty to tell the general public that the 'Da Vinci Code' has no historical value?
Is this publication intended to have historical value?
The author intended it.
Can we see evidence?
We can at least say that Dan Bown used gMary and gPhilip.
"According to these unaltered gospels it was not Peter
to whom Christ gave directions with which to establish
the Christian Church. It was Mary Magdalene."

This is derived from gPhilip. Peter was peeved about Mary being given secret knowledge by Big J. that he and the other male disciples were not privy to. The author of gPhilip IMVHO is satirizing Peter. Dan Brown has exposed just the tip of an iceberg of such polemic. The question to be addressed is the chronology of these "unaltered gospels".

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Most scholars hold a 3rd century date of composition.

I favor a 4th century - post Nicaean - date of composition.

IMO it was just another literary reaction to the Constantine Bible.
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Old 03-18-2012, 06:16 AM   #109
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While a responsible historian has a duty to tell the general public that the 'Da Vinci Code' has no historical value?
Is this publication intended to have historical value?
The author intended it.
Can we see evidence?
We can at least say
The least that is acceptable is the answer to the question.

Did Brown indicate that his book was of historical value? If so, where is the evidence?
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Old 03-18-2012, 02:49 PM   #110
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sotto - are you unable or unwilling to click on links and read for yourself? Can you appreciate the subtlety of Dan Brown's position, where he claims that his fictional work is based on real historical fact, if you can find it?

Consider this
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Although he begins the book with a statement that it accurately describes real documents, and that the Priory of Sion really does exist, even this leaves him with plenty of wiggle room. The book’s selling point is the impression that it contains large and provocative servings of historical fact; yet when challenged on the many fallacies in his novel, Brown can always assert that, as a work of fiction, “The Da Vinci Code” can’t be held to any standard of accuracy.

A cozy situation for Brown, but it became somewhat less so recently when, in the U.K., a lawsuit was filed against him for “breach of copyright of ideas and research.” The complainants, Michael Baigent and Richard Leigh, are the coauthors, with Henry Lincoln, of “Holy Blood, Holy Grail,” a bestseller from the early 1980s. Virtually all the bogus history in “The Da Vinci Code” — nearly everything, in other words, that today’s readers’ find so electrifying in Brown’s novel — is lifted from “Holy Blood, Holy Grail.”

This puts both Brown and the authors of “Holy Blood, Holy Grail,” in a tricky position. Baigent et al. have always maintained that the “facts” supporting their theories are available to any dedicated scholar and that the theories themselves, while unconventional, have been seriously entertained by other “experts,” (including some, they claim, in the “upper echelons” of the Roman Catholic Church).
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