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06-24-2011, 12:28 PM | #21 | ||||
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Whatever the day is called, anyone who proposes to assert that Mithras was supposed by the ancients to have been born on Dec. 25 (or viii kal. Ian., if we prefer) does have to produce something like *evidence*. That evidence is either ancient literary texts saying so -- and there ARE ancient literary texts calling that date the solstice, or the new sun -- or else some inscription or archaeology. I don't think questions of Julian/Gregorian are relevant here. Quote:
By all means produce some statement that whichever god you have in mind was born "3 days after the winter solstice". You might like to reflect, tho, that ancient authors vary as to which day was the winter solstice, precisely. Quote:
More seriously, such claims -- they are not arguments -- don't seem very impressive to me. I seem to remember contributing to the former thread, which was most interesting. Unfortunately they locked me out of the thread in the end. Quote:
All the best, Roger Pearse |
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06-24-2011, 12:28 PM | #22 |
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06-24-2011, 12:29 PM | #23 |
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06-24-2011, 12:34 PM | #24 | ||
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http://www.roger-pearse.com/weblog/?p=2884 http://www.roger-pearse.com/weblog/?p=2648 I'm not sure whether that covers all bases, but note that the Acharya S article gives no ancient source. All the best, Roger Pearse |
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06-24-2011, 01:29 PM | #25 | ||||||||
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Just more typical hand-waving dismissals.
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"...we should not expect to see ancient primary sources claiming Mithra (or any god) was born on December 25th because that is a Gregorian calendar date that did not exist until 1582." Quote:
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06-24-2011, 01:33 PM | #26 |
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roger, do you believe that no other man god before your man god came back to life on earth? you don't believe that the idea of ressurection only came into existence after christianity?
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06-24-2011, 01:47 PM | #27 | |
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For example, the virgin Mary in the gospels is just a young girl who gives birth to a baby, somewhat miraculously, although there are exegetes who claim that the birth in the gospels is not necessarily parthogenesis. It is only later in Christian history that she becomes something like a goddess, immaculately conceived. Anahita and the other "virgins" that Acharya S brings up as comparable are much more than young women who give birth. They are goddesses who are somehow perpetually virginal even after multiple births. The only common theme here is giving birth - but that is a universal part of human experience. So what does this show? The human brain is wired to look for patterns and enjoy finding them. Sometimes those patterns are meaningful, sometimes not. |
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06-24-2011, 02:08 PM | #28 | ||||||||||||||
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You're welcome to produce evidence for your claim that 25 Dec. was the solstice in the 4th century. But the relevance of this is unclear. Quote:
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I have to ask this: is English not your first language? Because I sense that you keep replying to something other than what I actually write! Which wastes your time and mine. Quote:
But I think the point of my query has got lost. You started by claiming that we shouldn't worry about the fact that no ancient source documents these deities being born on 25 Dec., because 25 Dec. didn't exist because the Gregorian calendar didn't exist (a very strange argument, as I remarked). You then went on to say that the fact the calendar didn't exist was irrelevant. I agree; but that rather renders your first point meaningless. Quote:
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The rest appears to be a crude "argument by offline book reference". I note that the Acharya S book isn't given a page number -- always a sure sign of that sort of thing. And ... we want ancient sources, not claims by people like Acharya S. Now I don't propose to be run around. If you have evidence from ancient sources for a "last supper" of Mithras, or of Osiris, why not produce it? All the best, Roger Pearse |
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06-24-2011, 02:17 PM | #29 | |
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Because, whatever our religious views, I don't see how any of us are helped by making crude errors like "Mithras was born on 25 Dec." if in fact no ancient source records it and it is a modern myth. To address your second sentence briefly, I would imagine that the idea of the dead coming back to life is primeval, and probably connected with the earliest men seeing corn sown as seed and sprouting in the spring. It is an idea which requires no explanation as to origins; I can see that some such story would naturally occur to any child independently. Somewhere in this thought is the research that Frazer did for the Golden Bough (although if you verify his statements in that work against the ancient sources, they don't always back up his theory!) But to discuss it, we would need to know a lot of primary data. And if the real argument is not about facts, but that Christianity must be untrue because some of its arguments and myths are recorded before it came into existence -- a religious argument, usually insinuated rather than stated clearly -- then I would point out that this is a non-sequitur; the conclusion does not necessarily follow from the premise, and I know Christians who argue the opposite, that the similarities prove the truth of Christianity. The argument would need to be made much more carefully before we could consider it. All the best, Roger Pearse |
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06-24-2011, 02:27 PM | #30 | |
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The example I tend to reference is the Atlantis cultists. These argue that pyramids in Mexico and pyramids in Egypt 'must' be connected, that the connection must be a lost Atlantis in the middle of the ocean, and that the similarity proves this. In reality the connection is that both cultures used blocks of stone, and the force of gravity will tend to cause blocks of stone to assume pyramidal shapes. All these arguments from similarity are fallacious unless drawn very narrowly indeed. Generally those making them want to include as much as possible; but a valid argument must have a negative corollary, that excludes false matches. The arguments also usually insinuate rather than argue, which is never a good sign. It is also insinuated that similarity proves connection and derivation. But of course this is not necessarily so. If I learn of an ancient Mayan ritual meal -- I don't know if there are any -- then I see no special reason to suppose that Mayans crossed the Atlantic to copy the passover, or, equally, that the ancient Jews developed ocean-going boats to teach the Mayans about it. Eating in groups is normal to men; and giving things religious significance is normal to men; and combining the two inevitable. All of these arguments, in my humble opinion, are useless as a source of information, therefore. There are nearly always *other* possible reasons for similarity. All the best, Roger Pearse |
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