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View Poll Results: Has mountainman's theory been falsified by the Dura evidence?
Yes 34 57.63%
No 9 15.25%
Don't know/don't care/don't understand/want another option 16 27.12%
Voters: 59. You may not vote on this poll

 
 
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Old 10-18-2008, 01:15 PM   #71
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
Just the existence of the religion 60 years earlier.
Perhaps I'm just dense, but I don't see anything in the Dura evidence that could not have been part of pre-christian ideas incorporated into Christianity by "the boss" (as Pete would call him). Again though, I don't think Pete's position is the simplest.
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Old 10-18-2008, 01:32 PM   #72
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Just the existence of the religion 60 years earlier.
Perhaps I'm just dense, but I don't see anything in the Dura evidence that could not have been part of pre-christian ideas incorporated into Christianity by "the boss" (as Pete would call him). Again though, I don't think Pete's position is the simplest.
Then it boils down to semantics. We have a pretty rock solid case that an important part of the Gospel story existed before 257 AD. It was clearly part of a larger story, and given the textual dependency, it's a reasonable inference that that story resembled the synoptic Gospel narrative at least in part. Even if the stories weren't called Christian, and Constantine just hijacked them for his new religion, it's still the case that the stories existed beforehand. Much of the set of core beliefs we now call Christianity was around.

And if someone wants to argue that it wasn't 'really' Christianity because Constantine hadn't made some key changes or additions yet, then that's going down a slippery slope, because many key changes in the beliefs continued to be made all through the Middle Ages, and right down to today. The point is that the root stories were apparently already around in 257.
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Old 10-18-2008, 02:09 PM   #73
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Pete - we're not getting through.

When the LXX was translated into Greek, the Jewish hero Joshua was translated as IHSOUS which was much later translated to the English Jesus.

One version of the mythicist hypothesis speculates that the mythical hero was named Jesus/Joshua after the mythical Joshua of the Exodus story.

Or, if you are a historicist, you know that the name Jesus was a common one, and there is nothing unusual about someone named Jesus in first century Palestine.

But in any case, Jesus is just the Greek translation of Joshua. They are the same name, whether written out in full or abbreviated.
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Old 10-18-2008, 02:20 PM   #74
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But these allegedly xian ideas can be tracked back well before Jesus!

Messiah - Daniel
Love your neighbour - numbers
walking on water - splitting the red sea

xians in fact are proud that Jesus is foretold in the Hebrew Bible!

So it is not just semantics but a serious problem - when does it become recognisably xian - and interestingly Constantine is an important point, but Ambrose may be more important!
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Old 10-18-2008, 02:44 PM   #75
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
Pete - we're not getting through.

When the LXX was translated into Greek, the Jewish hero Joshua was translated as IHSOUS which was much later translated to the English Jesus.

One version of the mythicist hypothesis speculates that the mythical hero was named Jesus/Joshua after the mythical Joshua of the Exodus story.

Or, if you are a historicist, you know that the name Jesus was a common one, and there is nothing unusual about someone named Jesus in first century Palestine.
Dear Toto,

Who was the hero Joshua and when did he live?

Quote:
But in any case, Jesus is just the Greek translation of Joshua. They are the same name, whether written out in full or abbreviated.
This is not the case at hand. We are dealing with a specific bit of text which spin is citing as one of the components to be used to refute my thesis that the christianity that we all know (ie: the canon of Constantine) was a fourth century fabrication of older materials.

My detractors are saying things like "We have a pretty rock solid case that an important part of the Gospel story existed before 257 AD.". What we have is he appearance of the abbreviation for Joshua appearing on this document. Who is to argue otherwise. Here is my reasoning.

Let's use Ben's introductory summary (which btw I find well done) as follows:

Quote:
This fragment, also known as 0212, was discovered in Syria and evidently comes from a harmony of the canonical gospels. Is it from the Diatessaron of Tatian? Or from another harmony? Nobody knows for certain. It parallels Matthew 27.55-57 = Mark 15.40-43 = Luke 23.49-51, 54; John 19.25b, 38, the accounts of the women at the cross and the arrival of Joseph of Arimathea.
As readers can themselves perceive, it is absolutely not a fragment of the canonical new testament. Neither may it be said to mention the name of Jesus, since it does not mention the name of jesus. What it does cite, thanks very much mr. spin for bringing this citation up, is the abbreviated form of a name, of a hero in hebrew tradition, who probably lived well before the time in question. That's it. Anything further is plain conjecture.

Since the fragment is not the canon, and since it does not mention Jesus by name in the sense of the canonical narratives, then it cannot be regarded as anyway dependent upon canonical christianity.

Consequently I find that at least this "Dura fragment" part of the evidence which is here being used in an attempt to refute the existence of the appearance of Jesus as a literary fiction of the fourth century, is insufficient for the purpose.

Dont give up hope however, Maybe there is some more evidence spin (or others - everyone can feel free to join in the great hunt for evidence) which can be used to refute the thesis. Does anyone want to discuss the Prosenes inscription or the Basilides inscription in Rome. The latter is also securely dated to around about the year 250 CE, and thus has a slight chronological priority over the Dura artefact. The inscription is openly declared and presumed by some commentators to be christian on the basis of the epitaph "He sleeps".

Best wishes,



Pete
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Old 10-18-2008, 03:03 PM   #76
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The Hebrew mythic hero Joshua lived in ancient times. If there were any evidence for his existence, you could say that he lived about 1200 BCE. He was Moses' lieutenant, who conquered the land of Canaan and established the nation of Isreal. There are no stories about him being crucified, women did not come to his cross, and he had no connection to Joseph of Arimathea. There is no way that this fragment concerns the earlier Joshua.
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Old 10-18-2008, 03:18 PM   #77
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P 10 of this pdf file notes possible xian pagan gnostic evidence from the 270's.

thehumanjourney.net/pdf_store/sthames/iow%20Roman.pdf


I cannot copy and paste the three paragraphs starting perhaps and noting Bachus, buried cockerels, a cockerel headed man and xian symbiols in close proximity...
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Old 10-18-2008, 03:43 PM   #78
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Originally Posted by Clivedurdle View Post
But these allegedly xian ideas can be tracked back well before Jesus!

Messiah - Daniel
Love your neighbour - numbers
walking on water - splitting the red sea

xians in fact are proud that Jesus is foretold in the Hebrew Bible!

So it is not just semantics but a serious problem - when does it become recognisably xian - and interestingly Constantine is an important point, but Ambrose may be more important!
We're not just talking about a fragment with themes that we see in Christianity. We're talking about something that clearly has some kind of textual dependence relationship with the Gospels. The two share a common source. And I think it's fair to say that the Gospel stories, even if in a different form, are recognizably Christian. Wherever you draw the line between Christian and non-Christian literature, something sharing a source with the Gospels belongs in the Christian column, even if it needs an asterisk.

EDIT: On a tangent, your post prompted me to read about Ambrose, and I learned some cool, if morbid, trivia. His remains are on display in a church in Milan, where they have been continuously venerated since antiquity. According to Wiki, his is "one of the oldest extant bodies of historical personages outside of Egypt."
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Old 10-18-2008, 06:51 PM   #79
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Originally Posted by jeffevnz View Post
We're not just talking about a fragment with themes that we see in Christianity. We're talking about something that clearly has some kind of textual dependence relationship with the Gospels. The two share a common source.
Dear jeffevnz,

The two must also share some mutual chronological framework so that we can easily perceive which came first, and which came second.

Quote:
And I think it's fair to say that the Gospel stories, even if in a different form, are recognizably Christian.
Yes, I would agree that the canonical gospel stories, which we know for certain were published in the fourth century at the latest, represent what we all today recognise as the christian new testament. The problem is, however, that we have no evidence that this literature predated Constantine other than the bold assertions of Constantine's propagandists.

Quote:
Wherever you draw the line between Christian and non-Christian literature, something sharing a source with the Gospels belongs in the Christian column, even if it needs an asterisk.
Mutual to all spreadsheets is the column that says Century. Since I cannot find any evidence for jesus, or the thirteen apostles, or the existence of any christian churches, or church-houses (Setting aside for the moment any issue with suspected christian house-churches at Dura), or christian art, or christian epigraphy, or christian archaeological relics, etc, etc, etc in centuries one, two and three, I have written four in this column.

I understand that this appears as entirely couter-intuitive to practically every reader here. It is contrary to our tradition. It is contrary to the what we were been told by our fathers and what they were told by their fathers and so forth, and so on, all the way back to the fourth century and Constanine, who weilded the very first christian authority, and who told us what we should believe. Sorry, but I dont buy the fabrication of the Galilaean Constantine, and I insist that it is a fiction of Eusebius created out of extant literature at the disposal of the Pontifex Maximus with effect from the 28th October in the year 312 CE.

The Greek academics of the eastern empire were aware of this, but what could they do? They had no power to object (other than, IMO, to author the NT apochryphal literature). Special notice should be taken that for the duration of the period of Constantine's rule 305-337 CE we do not have any other "historical reports" other than those who are either directly perceived to be Constantine's propagandists (ie: christian ecclesiatical historians) or the later continuators of Eusebius. We do not possess anything anti-Constantine from someone in the era of Constantine, other than the simple words of Arius of Alexandria, whatever these words may mean (to you). The pattern of similar facts suggests that Constantine is best viewed politically as a malevolent despot who established an anti-Hellenic emperor cults which, in the course of a century, took the Hellenic civilisation down a very dark and oppressive road, at the end of which, after the library of Alexandria was shed of its conflicting historical and literature accounts, the tax-exempt christian bishop Cyril took up the pen to develop the phyla of christian christologies, and to soundly refute those lies of Emperor Julian.


Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 10-18-2008, 07:21 PM   #80
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Constantinian Nicaean christianity chronologically fostered the rest. (IMO)

And I wish to thank Sheshbazzar for clearly articulating the bit about the caveat that they did NOT start from scratch with a blank piece of parchment, but freely adapted previous ideas and compositions into their new theology and its distinctive and definitive texts. I have previously used the term "created out of the whole cloth" before, to indicate a fiction, a fabrication. By this I did not mean to impy everything was dreamt up afresh. These guys had access to the city of Rome's best technology (of codex preservation, etc) and the literature at that specific time in history. That they freely adapted extant texts is to be expected, since Constantine liberated the libraries of Rome from its senate 312 CE.

Best wishes


Pete
Eusebius's version of Christian History was a fabrication easily achieved by the simple expedient of "editing" and interpolating earlier non-christian philosophical and religious texts, and then making up new "histories" for these now claimed to be "Christian Church Fathers", and "Christian Saints".
This of course required the destruction and burning of the actual earlier manuscripts as being non-conforming, non-orthodox and "heretical", leaving only Eusebius's "version" of their beliefs, words, and actions.
It is amazing the amount of early "Christian" writers and "testimony" that we have no non-Eusebian sources for, only Eusebius's patently biased political propaganda versions of what he says that they believed, taught, and died for.
The 'Creed of Ulfilas', as recorded by Auxentius, is post-Eusebian evidence for the doctrines of the post-Constantinian Arian church, and is fundamentally incompatible with Pete's version.
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Oh yes, many of the NTs stories and tropes existed and were circulated, just were NOT originally exclusively "Christian".
The Constantinian achievement was in the stringing them all together into a more-or-less cohesive narrative fashion, to create the appearance of them having been the product of a real and monolithic (X-ian) religious movement, one that in actuality never existed, until it was fabricated and enforced by Constantine's goon squads.
But Constantine did not create a monolithic Christianity. Divergent forms of Christianity continued to exist after Constantine, just as they had before. Obviously the Constantinian achievement was an important development in the history of Christianity. Nobody disputes this. The standard conventional accounts recognise its importance. It is not necessary to accept Pete's interpretation to acknowledge this.
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I know what you think, Pete. I was asking what Sheshbazzar thinks, and I still want to know.

However, what you say (whether it is what Sheshbazzar thinks or not) does move the discussion forward. All the kinds of Christianity I mentioned (and all the rest) have borrowed from (or been 'fostered by') earlier ideas and traditions. Now you say that Constantinian Christianity did the same. So why do you deny that the earlier ideas and traditions which Constantinian Christianity borrowed from (or were 'fostered by') were Christian? What's the difference between Christian and non-Christian?
I used the phrase "more-or-less" to indicate that the Constantine/Eusebius revisionism was NOT entirely successful in its attempt at hanging all of these diverse traditions and writings together, this is why the NTs text is fraught with contradictions and impossible to reconcile accounts.
Even the "Orthodox" could never agree on any absolute interpretation of all these conflicting details, so from the beginning there has been a tendency to dissent and separate over "doctrinal issues".
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Originally Posted by Sheshbazzar View Post
Returning to J-Ds question

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Originally Posted by J-D View Post
When you say 'the religion of Christianity as it is now recognised', what do you mean?
The worlds concepts of what constitutes "Christian beliefs" and ideas was ever after skewed and colored by Constantine's promotion of HIS particular version and form of Christianity, and his regime's violent suppression of all of the diverse earlier forms of the "Christian" faith.
I do not say that there were no "christians" prior to Constantine and Eusebius, rather that there were, but outside of their relating similar parabels and passion stories, they were strangers to that Orthodox religion invented by Constantine that we are now familiar with in its various guises.
Now, whether you realise it or not, and whether you are prepared to admit it or not, you are siding with standard history and against Pete's version. Standard history accepts that Constantine imposed a new orthodoxy, but also affirms that there were pre-Constantinian versions of Christianity. Pete denies that there was any pre-Constantinian Christianity and insists that Constantine's imposition of orthodoxy was the very beginning of Christianity.
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Constantine had these original Christians hunted down and slaughtered to impose his will upon the people.
I have seen no evidence for this.
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