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Old 06-11-2004, 02:51 PM   #241
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Billy Graham is cool
If granted what then is the relevance in saying there is no difference from the point of view of burden of proof?
Because whether a harmonization is eventually judged to be reasonable or not, the recognition that one is called for in the first instance is a recognition of having the burden of proof.



Now, will explaining that again accomplish anything? Let's look at a brief sample of previous instances of this very point, none of which having been given a response.

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What are the attempted harmonizations, if not attempts to discharge a recognized obligation to reply to prima facie evidence?
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to defend one's innocence is to recognize the burden of proof imposed by prima facie evidence of guilt.
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our general epistemic practice is to regard evidence that P as defeasible reason to believe that P. A "harmonization" is of course an attempt to actually defeat such defeasible reason
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True Believers themselves recognize apparent contradictions... -- viz, tensions that strike even inerrantists as imposing a burden of explanation, since they wear their problematic nature on their faces.
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Vork correctly noted that even inerrantists recognize the burden.
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"The fact that inerrantists attempt to harmonize apparent contradictions" (for instance) indicates simply that they recognize the burden of proof these impose upon them. [Requoted in my last post!]
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Old 06-11-2004, 02:54 PM   #242
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To reiterate:

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Originally Posted by Clutch
Why are you haring around like this? For a long time you claimed neutrality was the issue, and that nobody had addressed it, until this was so comprehensively refuted that you abandoned the claim. You have asserted more than once that question-begging is a major flaw of the errantist position; and you've been given many responses to this claim. Two of the most recent responses here and here were met with approval by most of your interlocutors. Yet, as I pointed out here, you simply changed the topic and refused to engage these vitiations of your complaints.

You have yet to give any argument defending an agnostic view, no epistemic standards by which such a view would be reasonable, no "criterion" for such a judgement -- despite demanding these things from your interlocutors.

The fact is, you have no coherent objection to the errancy argument -- the argument that, in the absence of a special justification for abandoning shared epistemic practices, it is special pleading for the inerrantist to abandon in the biblical case the evaluative approach taken by errantist and inerrantist alike towards all other texts.
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Old 06-11-2004, 02:56 PM   #243
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Originally Posted by Billy Graham is cool
1. It is patently false that '[a]ll readers recognize it as an inconsistency'.
Frank references to it being an inconsistency are universal among readers with differing positions on errancy. The attempt at harmonization is an admission of contradiction.

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3. It is an invalid inference from the fact that a biblical author presents two mutually exclusive accounts of an event that a bilblical author asserts the verity of both accounts.
See any good text on logic. To contain a contradiction, it is not necessary for either or both statements to be true. From Mathworld:A truth table is a two-dimensional array with columns. The first n columns correspond to the possible values of n inputs, and the last column to the operation being performed. The rows list all possible combinations of inputs together with the corresponding outputs. For example, the following truth table shows the result of the binary AND operator acting on two inputs A and B, each of which may be true or false.

As you can see, verity is not relevant.

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4. Harmonization is necessary whether an inconsistency is actual or apparent in the same way that a defense before a judge and jury is necessary whether one's guilt is actual or only apparent.
No, the two examples have nothing to do with each other. It is not against the law to be an errant text from humans, and there is no punishment for being errant. The whole discussion about law is a red herring. Legal methodology and scholarly methodology are completely different. In scholarly methodology, the text is assumed to be from human hands unless and until evidence is submitted that proves otherwise. All texts, whether Grant's memoirs, the Bible, or shoe ads, are treated in this way. For some a priori, believers engage in special pleading, and demand that their text be exempt from normal scholarly procedures.

Harmonization is necessary because a contradiction has been detected and is acknowledge by readers on all sides, and the harmonizer possesses and a priori commitment to the inerrancy of a particular text (Quran, Bible are two such texts commonly harmonized). Harmonization is not a response to scholarly suspicion or "accusations." It has been taking place for far longer than modern scholarship has.

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Ah, confusion over terminology. ..... Now, does your chosen example (i.e. 1 Sam., 2 Sam) meet these logical criteria (i.e. A, B) for biblical error or not? If so, why? It's just that simple.
Of course, since verity is not an issue in a contradiction. Whether a Bible author may assert the verity of a passage or not is irrelevant; it is a contradiction even if both are false. Thus.....

a. John Lennon was killed by John Haldeman
b. John Lennon was killed by Jane Fonda.

....are contradictory even though both are false. Similarly the two accounts of Saul's death in 1 Sam and 2 Sam are contradictory even though I personally believe neither account is truthful. A "contradiction" is a relationship between two statements, not a relationship between a statement and a statement and reality.

Vorkosigan
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Old 06-11-2004, 02:58 PM   #244
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Post For Clutch part II

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Originally Posted by Clutch
... are such obvious straw men that they cannot have been meant seriously.
I set up a straw man of the errantist's argument only if I present a weaker form of it and then proclaim the weaker form as the actual argument. Observe here, more closely this time, that I summarize the argument as I understand it, acknowledging the possibility that my summation is misinformed and in need of amendment. So it is false that I've set up a straw man here.
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"The fact that inerrantists attempt to harmonize apparent contradictions" (for instance) indicates simply that they recognize the burden of proof these impose upon them. Whether the errors are actual -- for the n+mth time -- is a judgement that can only be made on a case-by-case basis. But that is, again, orthogonal to the question of burden, which the Chicago statement and your own examples concede clearly and repeatedly.
I agree that the inerrantist assumes the burden of proof with regards to both actual and apparent inconsistencies, if that is what you mean by the above. I do not agree, with good cause, that actual and apparent inconsistencies are ontologically identical, which is what I took you to mean.

Regards,
Bgic
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Old 06-11-2004, 03:06 PM   #245
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BGic - do I assume you have now abandoned your statement of
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Originally Posted by BGic
I am not here to argue for inerrancy and that I believe, frankly, that neither errancy nor inerrancy can be proven.
?

Have you now derived a standard for inerrency being:
Quote:
Originally Posted by BGic
(A) If a biblical author asserts the verity of P and the same author or another biblical author asserts the verity of ~P then the Bible is errant. Also, as I noted earlier and as you now observe in the above, (B) if a biblical author asserts the verity of P and P is false then the the Bible is errant.
You have stated this argument twice, so I am on the assumption that the pages and pages of discussion on the position of "neutrality" are over. If so, I will gladly take a crack at it.
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Old 06-11-2004, 03:12 PM   #246
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
Legal methodology and scholarly methodology are completely different.
Quite correct. In fact, the analogy of the "apparent" guilt and "actual" guilt was not very good. (to be kind) However, I am understanding of the point behind the analogy, rather than attacking the analogy. (having made a few bad analogies myself )

I also could not think of an analogy to replace it. Perhaps better, a question. At what point in time, BGic does an "apparent" inconsistency become an "actual" inconsistency or vice versa?
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Old 06-11-2004, 03:19 PM   #247
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Billy Graham is cool
Does some proponent p for the inerrancy of some text t assume the burden of proving the inerrancy of t given the presence of 'surface anomalies' in t? ... <cue cricket noise>

Mirabile dictu...
Quote:
Originally Posted by Billy Graham is cool
I agree that the inerrantist assumes the burden of proof with regards to both actual and apparent inconsistencies

I believe we have achieved communication. Hey, where'd you buy that ticker-tape? Is there room for me in the limo next to the inanimate carbon rod?
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Old 06-11-2004, 03:21 PM   #248
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Question confused

Vorkosigan,
I can't make any sense out of your last post. Not a bit of it seems to me to be relevant to whether or not 1 Sam. and 2 Sam. contradict one another or are in contradiction with historical facts.

Regards,
BGic
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Old 06-11-2004, 03:23 PM   #249
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Originally Posted by blt to go
Quite correct. In fact, the analogy of the "apparent" guilt and "actual" guilt was not very good.
It was fine. It just employed the ordinary notion of guilt -- who did it? -- as opposed to the legal notion -- who can be proved to have done it, within the epistemic tolerances of a particular judge and jury? -- a distinction which is pretty straightforward.
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Old 06-11-2004, 03:31 PM   #250
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Clutch, you may be correct about the legal analogy. But it is so immersed in my life, that I have LONG since lost sight of the "ordinary" notion of guilt.
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