Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Mageth · 08-12-2004, 01:45 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by RaviZachariasFan

But isn't it a valid question to ask why they didn't change the scripture to fit their teachings? I mean they could have tradition and sola scriptura to validate them then.

They didn't need the scripture to validate each and every one of their doctrines - that's the point. If, for example, the "Magisterium" declared Mary to be the "Mother of God" , Intercessor, and all that went along with it, then that was that - it was as good as God speaking. What was declared by the Church was as good as scripture - better, actually.

gregor · 08-12-2004, 02:34 PM

Wow - what a broad series of questions:

"A) Who altered it?
B) Why did they alter it?
C) What did they alter?
D) When was the last time that you believe that it was changed?"

Some alterations that were made between 150CE and 350 CE were done by persons to support their proto-orthodox (ref. Ehrman) theories of "true" Xianity. Read the Orthodox Corruption of Scripture.

http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/AS...ternetinfidels

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08-12-2004, 02:34 PM	#22
gregor Senior Member Join Date: Sep 2003 Location: Texas Posts: 932	Wow - what a broad series of questions: "A) Who altered it? B) Why did they alter it? C) What did they alter? D) When was the last time that you believe that it was changed?" Some alterations that were made between 150CE and 350 CE were done by persons to support their proto-orthodox (ref. Ehrman) theories of "true" Xianity. Read the Orthodox Corruption of Scripture. http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/AS...ternetinfidels

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