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Old 05-09-2007, 11:22 AM   #11
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One reason for so few 1st century Judaean references to Jesus may be the fact that so few Judaean 'future authors' survived the Roman Wars long enough to relax and write some books.

Its sort of like expecting thousands of memoirs from the Nazi Death Camps. Not a lot of candidates willing to wax eloquent on a sore subject.
This is a very strange analogy. Google <memoirs nazi death camps> and you will find quite a few, from both Jews and Germans.

For writers who might have written about Jesus but are silent, we have the example of Philo, a Jewish author who died after Jesus' putative death, but who did not mention him; and another historian of the time, Justus of Tiberius, made no mention.
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Justus of Tiberius was a native of Christ's own country, Galilee. He wrote a history covering the time of Christ's reputed existence. This work has perished, but Photius, a Christian scholar and critic of the ninth century, who was acquainted with it, says: "He [Justus] makes not the least mention of the appearance of Christ, of what things happened to him, or of the wonderful works that he did" (Photius' Bibliotheca, code 33).
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Old 05-09-2007, 11:29 AM   #12
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Ellen Johnson is the President of American Atheists. Frank Zindler is on the staff, where he is editor of American Atheist Press and the American Atheist Magazine. He has a PhD in biology and works as a linguist.
I stand corrected: Frank Zindler is the Director of American Atheists Press.

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Old 05-09-2007, 01:42 PM   #13
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I'm guessing it is a reference to translations that have "so-called" Christ though it is my understanding that it is a mistake to assume this to be necessarily "unflattering".
I simply meant it might be unflattering from a true-believer's perspective to cast into doubt Jesus's divinity. Indeed, it was the principle issue for early Christians, not Jesus' wisdom or thaumaturgy per se,and certainly not his historicity.
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Old 05-09-2007, 01:46 PM   #14
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Some of the Heresies in the early centuries were stamped out and would have never been known about had it not been for early christian apologetics such as Irenaeus' Against Heresies. Documents/books destroyed, etc.

It seems if Jewish scholars mentioned Jesus and/or his life, teachings, miracles, whatever... Early christian apologists would have cited them, even if the Jews edited all references to Jesus out of literature. Over time, christian writings would have commented on those references to Jesus had they been there.

Why would Christians edited in a reference to Jesus in Josephus and not any other Jewish writings? Well, Josephus wrote for the Romans and his works may have been solely in their possession, and subsequently in the hands of Church fathers. The Talmud and other Jewish writings may not have been accessable to Eusebius, for instance... at least for editing purposes. He may have had opportunity to manipulate works of Josephus though.
My understanding is that by the early middle ages, Christian authorities in fact had a great deal of control over the disapora and had the power to force Jewish scholars to edit rabbinical texts to deal with whatever sensitivities were eating at the Christian communities at the time.
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Old 05-09-2007, 01:56 PM   #15
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I simply meant it might be unflattering from a true-believer's perspective to cast into doubt Jesus's divinity. Indeed, it was the principle issue for early Christians, not Jesus' wisdom or thaumaturgy per se,and certainly not his historicity.
How does the Testimonium call his divinity into question? It seems to call his humanity into question (if it be permitted to call him a man).

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Old 05-09-2007, 02:00 PM   #16
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I simply meant it might be unflattering from a true-believer's perspective to cast into doubt Jesus's divinity. Indeed, it was the principle issue for early Christians, not Jesus' wisdom or thaumaturgy per se,and certainly not his historicity.
I am not sure what this debate is about. As Wells pointed out, the shorter Antiquities mention of Jesus uses the wording of Mt 1:16 'Iesous ho legomenos Christos' (Jesus /who is/him that is/ called 'Christ'). Where would that be "unflattering" or "casting doubts" ?

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Old 05-09-2007, 02:14 PM   #17
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How does the Testimonium call his divinity into question? It seems to call his humanity into question (if it be permitted to call him a man).

Ben.
I was using a translation that employs "so-called."

I don't really know what to make of Josephus' "If" clause: "permitted" by whom? Lawful under what law? I guess I'm happy to see this as a clumsy interpolation by a later Christian scribe. But if Josephus really wrote it, it almost sounds ironic, it's so on the nose.

Further the ending to the passage is odd: "And the tribe of Christians, so named from him, are not extinct at this day." It's a strange counterpoint to suggesting Jesus is divine. It's almost as if Josephus expects them to be extinct, but strangely enough, well, they aren't. If the tenor of the passage is that Jesus was the true messiah, why would he be surprised at the nonextinction of his followers? You'd expect him to say, "And of course, the Christains are growing in numbers because they follow the true messiah." But instead, he damns Christians with faint praise -- "Well, at least they aren't totally exterminated -- no thanks to Jesus!"

A weird ambiguous passage.
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Old 05-09-2007, 02:16 PM   #18
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I am not sure what this debate is about. As Wells pointed out, the shorter Antiquities mention of Jesus uses the wording of Mt 1:16 'Iesous ho legomenos Christos' (Jesus /who is/him that is/ called 'Christ'). Where would that be "unflattering" or "casting doubts" ?

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It can be translated "so-called."
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Old 05-09-2007, 02:50 PM   #19
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I was using a translation that employs "so-called."
But, since legomenos does not have to bear that connotation, it seems reckless to assume it has to mean so-called and then use that assumption to lead to other conclusions.

Another important point is that this word does not appear in the Testimonium; it appears in the James reference.

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I don't really know what to make of Josephus' "If" clause: "permitted" by whom? Lawful under what law?
I do not think the Greek word (χρη) is intended to raise those questions. It is just an impersonal construction. One could just about as easily translate it as if it is appropriate [or necessary] to call him a man.

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I guess I'm happy to see this as a clumsy interpolation by a later Christian scribe.
I am too. But there seem to be other alterations, as well, even if the whole thing is not forged in its entirety.

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Old 05-09-2007, 03:44 PM   #20
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This is a very strange analogy. Google <memoirs nazi death camps> and you will find quite a few, from both Jews and Germans.
Of course the original question was concerning Jewish writers, so the fact of 'quite a few German memoirs' is non-sequitous.

And again, 'quite a few' in a democratic post-printing era is what I find to be a strange analogy.

We have no reason to expect 'quite a few' Jewish 1st century historical works, and we don't find them either, with or without Jesus.



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For writers who might have written about Jesus but are silent, we have the example of Philo, a Jewish author who died after Jesus' putative death, but who did not mention him; and another historian of the time, Justus of Tiberius, made no mention.
The example of Philo seems apt, but not the 9th century example of "Photius" quoting a 'lost' book of Justis the Galilean. Even if we don't doubt Photius' claim, he is hardly someone in a position to judge the authenticity of a work nine centuries earlier and presumably only known through some copy he found.

Sounds like a very probable case of a forgery. There was no shortage of those, in the 4 centuries after Christ.
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