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03-12-2011, 07:31 PM | #61 | |
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Thanks for the heads-up, I ducked in time.
So, I'm an apologist, eh? I know, you're upset that I pointed out that protagonists of tragedies always have a tragic flaw, and then prehaps ever so subtly suggested that your endless posts on Mark as a tragic play was the result of your own tragic flaw, hubris (pride)? I call 'em as I see 'em. Hi ho! DCH Quote:
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03-13-2011, 11:44 AM | #62 | ||||
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Quack, quack. Awfluck. Quote:
Jesus, I hate forced seriousness. Normally in this situation I ignore but you have contributed some good research on these unholy Boards so, it is currently 1:04 PM on my time. On the other hand, I've never interacted with you in detail. For the record I've known JP Holding, I've worked with JP Holding and I've worked over JP Holding. Son of man, you are no JP Holding. As near as I can tell you are one of the most objective correspondents here. Quote:
Upset? Assuming that I was upset, maybe it's because you are wrong. The offending Greek word means "missing the Mark". Here is where Aristotle is prescriptive. The best Greek Tragedy has a protagonist with a tragic flaw. Aristotle explains though that it could just be bad/wrong choice. Bilezikian points out that by Roman times (you know, the time when "Mark" was written) Tragedy includes protagonists who simply have bad luck. I continue to accept that the biggest difference "Mark" has with classical Greek Tragedy is that Jesus is presented as the ultimate positive role model which goes against failure being caused by the hero. See how easy that was? That's just one parallel though. Understand dear Reader? It also fits "Mark's" pervasive ironic theme. Jesus played his part perfectly but his Disciples' lack of faith was greater than his ability to give them faith (just like all the Prophets before him). Now that's tragedy. I find it interesting here that the Hebrew word for "sin" also means "missing the Mark". Quote:
You missed an opportunity here. "endless posts on Mark's ending" would have been funny. Again, the purpose of this Thread is to inventory evidence that "Mark" is Greek Tragedy. No matter what the result, I could hardly conclude that "Mark" is Greek Tragedy without also considering evidence that "Mark" has elements of other genre. Than I would sound like Burridge. Arguments that "Mark" is Bios have been done to death. Threads exploring "Mark's" parallels to Greek Tragedy are rarer than Gordon Gecko's interest in Annacott Steel. Think of this Thread like the rape of Mary by someone possessed of spirits. If it is inevitable than why not just sit back and enjoy it. Quote:
Not that easy to be funny, is it. If you proof-text that "Mark" can not be Greek Tragedy because the hero lacks a tragic flaw than you do sound like an Apologist/Burridge. I have faith that you can do better than that and consider to what extent "Mark" has elements of Greek Tragedy. Joseph ErrancyWiki |
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03-13-2011, 12:54 PM | #63 | ||
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DCH |
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05-13-2011, 09:16 AM | #64 | ||
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JW:
Dr. Carrier has now introduced the article: Mark 16:9-20 as Forgery or Fabrication by Richard Carrier, Ph.D. (2009) at his blog: Mark 16:9-20 Now is the time to try and improve the article with constructive criticism. As always, I Am more interested in comments regarding specific evidence rather than general conclusions. For starters, I think the star witness against LE is Eusebius. Here is Dr. Carrier's related excerpt: Quote:
Eusebius is a star witness because: 1) He identifies the textual criticism issue. 2) He provides his evidence. The related weakness in Dr. Carrier's article is that the discussion of Eusebius is relatively small compared to the article as a whole considering Eusebius' importance to the conclusion. Note for example how much more Dr. Carrier writes about Irenaeus in an attempt to eliminate/reduce his witness for LE. I think the discussion of Eusebius needs to be expanded and specifically address two issues: 1) Intentional bias - Did Eusebius have a reason to overstate the evidence against? The context of the offending letter (Marinus) is that the LE creates a contradiction with "Matthew". Eusebius explains that if the LE is not original, there is no contradiction. Further, Eusebius may be overstating the evidence against to stay within the context of a private letter (providing a reason to avoid a contradiction) and not intend a public textual criticism position. Related to this is Eusebius' credibility in general. Skeptics generally accept that Eusebius has a credibility problem, Was Eusebius A Truth Challenged Advocate For Jesus? - The Argument Resurrected so if you accept that Eusebius was truth-challenged at times, how much credibility can you give him here? 2) Unintentional bias - Was Eusebius qualified to make a textual criticism conclusion? Considering the general difficulty in travel at the time and specifically the East/West split, the question is what was the extent (geographical) of Eusebius' knowledge here? Our friend, Ben Smith, has laid out the related split between the East and West: http://www.textexcavation.com/marcanendings.html Quote:
I think these two questions, possible Intentional and Unintentional bias on the part of Eusebius deserve some discussion before weight can properly be applied to Eusebius' testimony. Everyone is welcome to comment except for Harvey Dubish. Joseph ErrancyWiki |
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05-13-2011, 12:07 PM | #65 | |
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So little evidence of any kind survives, unequivocal statements are impossible. Yes, the ending of Mark was most likely added. But this is not proven. In the end, we can only speak of arguments and likelihoods. It suggests to me that atheists are just capable of projection as believers. I would also be curious to know what "system of God", assuming one is necessary, would avoid all of this folderol? |
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06-18-2011, 03:07 PM | #66 | ||||||||||||
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JW:
As I've mentioned in this Thread, Eusebius is a star witness against LE. I'm now going to build an inventory of Eusebius' (E) qualifications as a Textual Critic. From Eusebius of Caesarea [Divisions mine]: Textual Criticism Expertise 1) Quote:
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Writings 1) Demonstrations of the Gospel 2) Preparations for the Gospel 3) On Discrepancies between the Gospels 4) Ecclesiastical History 5)Onomasticon 6) Quote:
Resources 1) Quote:
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Predecessors 1) Quote:
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International Reputation 1) Quote:
Position 1) Quote:
Objectivity 1) Quote:
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06-18-2011, 03:51 PM | #67 | |
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James Snapp, Jr., whom I consider to be the foremost authority the world has ever known regarding evidence for LE, has claimed that Dr. Carrier's article has dozens of errors. I'll start posting Mr. Snapp's claims here at FRDB as I find them for analysis: http://www.makingmyway.org/?p=572 Quote:
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06-18-2011, 07:30 PM | #68 | ||
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I find there to be little reason arguing with folk who are determined to hold their position in the face of any argument against it. Jon |
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06-19-2011, 03:41 AM | #69 | ||
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"dozens of errors" ? I would prefer to read a proper rebuttal for the five points mentioned by Snapp. a. Codex W --- ? yes or no? error by Carrier, or not? b. Vaticanus & Sinaiticus from the same or different scriptoria--consensus opinion today? c. 274 is Uncial or minuscule? d. "Irenaeus" quote of Mark 16:19 -- source? how do we know anything about what "Irenaeus" wrote? how do we verify that the extant Latin text corresponds to a non-extant Greek original? e. vagueness in reference to Origen and Clement (of Alexandria, presumably)?? Most importantly, Joe, what would be most helpful, is context... How do Snapp's criticisms, whether valid or bogus, relate to the central issue, i.e. whether or not Mark 16 is corrupted? For example, so what if Vaticanus and Sinaiticus do (or do not) come from different scriptoria? How would that (supposed fact) relate to the question of what the ink drying on "Mark's" first papyrus looked like? avi |
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06-25-2011, 05:28 PM | #70 | |||
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Dr. Carrier points out that what follows in his article after stating that the Freer Logion replaces verse 15 is exactly what Codex W has instead of verse 15: http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php...gends2#The_VLE Quote:
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