FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 11-03-2008, 08:22 AM   #61
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Midwest
Posts: 4,787
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by dog-on View Post
Ben, my problem with this is the seeming silence concerning the existence of Luke/Acts prior to the time of Ireneaus.
Justin knows some gospel passages that are found today only in our Luke.

Ben.
Ben C Smith is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 08:56 AM   #62
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2006
Location: The Netherlands
Posts: 3,397
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by dog-on View Post
Ben, my problem with this is the seeming silence concerning the existence of Luke/Acts prior to the time of Ireneaus.
Justin knows some gospel passages that are found today only in our Luke.

Ben.
Justin speaks about the memoirs. Could this be the "Ur-Lucas"?
dog-on is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 10:23 AM   #63
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Midwest
Posts: 4,787
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by dog-on View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post

Justin knows some gospel passages that are found today only in our Luke.

Ben.
Justin speaks about the memoirs. Could this be the "Ur-Lucas"?
Well, the memoirs could include a proto-Luke (since Justin makes clear that the memoirs are multiple texts). Possibly.

But, interestingly enough, the bits in Justin that come from Luke seem specifically to derive from the western text of Luke, and seem to include things that I would not tend to attribute to proto-Luke, such as the infancy narrative.

Ben.
Ben C Smith is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 11:08 AM   #64
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2007
Location: Mondcivitan Republic
Posts: 2,550
Default

Ben,

I can only point to the way Marcion is said to have treated the Paulines. Again, Tertullian makes the claim that Marcion cut down the letters of Paul. Marcion is said to have contended that here too the truth has been adultered and the letters that spoke of Christ the son of the good God had been Judaized.

Many modern exegetes from the 19th century onward have seen the Christology in the epistles as somehow inherently superior to the Judaic doctrines, and therefor it MUST be the key to understanding Paul's thought. The Judaic thought is surpassed in glory by its majesty, and thus consigning the former to the trash heap of history.

If one were to ask me, it seems Marcion agreed with this kind of thinking, only instead of understanding the Christ dogma as the product of a historical process, he wanted to believe that it was a direct revelation of a pure, good, God, that is dirtied by any admixture with Judaism, which he seems to consider barbaric.

Personally, I think is is much harder to get a coherent Christological system from the Paulines than it is to get a Hellenized sort of diaspora Judaism that sought a closer association between Jews and God-fearing gentiles. However, if one is predisposed to prefer the opposite, then that is what one tends to see.

If Marcion had become aware that the Paulines (he seems to have only been aware of Romans to 2 Thessalonians in canonical editions) existed in more than one edition, but didn't have access to any other than the canonical one, he may have felt justified to reverse edit it to recover what he was absolutely sure MUST have been in the original. Once he made that step with the Paulines, it is a small additional step to do something similar to a canonical Gospel.

DCH

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
As an alternative, Tertullian expresses his opinion that it is a mutilated version of Luke, and he could be right. He's read it, I haven't. I might agree with you that Marcion could have based his version on an early version of Luke (a proto-Luke), but there is no independent literary evidence that Luke, or any of the received Gospels, existed in any other form than we have them.
That is the thing. We do have evidence of a version, if you will, of Luke: Marcion. The gospel of Luke and the gospel of Marcion are clearly interdependent texts. We are taking Tertullian at his word to suppose that the relationship between these texts is Luke to Marcion. But what if Tertullian is wrong? I do not think (pending further review) he had independed tradition detailing the composition of the Marcionite gospel; I think all he had was the texts themselves.

The direction of dependence may be Marcion to Luke. Or both of them may rely on a proto-Luke. That is what this thread is trying to decide (provisionally, of course).

Do you know of any evidence for the Tertullianic reconstruction besides his word itself? For example, do you find evidence that Tertullian was indeed relying on some tradition of the actual composition of the Marcionite gospel?

Quote:
Is this a round about way to ask whether the Goulder hypothesis has any bearing on the matter of Marcion's Gospel?
No. But I can see some relevance to that question.

Ben.
DCHindley is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 11:20 AM   #65
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Midwest
Posts: 4,787
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
I can only point to the way Marcion is said to have treated the Paulines. Again, Tertullian makes the claim that Marcion cut down the letters of Paul. Marcion is said to have contended that here too the truth has been adultered and the letters that spoke of Christ the son of the good God had been Judaized.
I agree that how Marcion handled the epistles is very relevant to deciding how he handled his gospel text. If he mutilated the epistles, then there is prima facie a reason to think that he may have done the same to the gospel.

So... how would you argue this same point with regard to the epistles? Can you show that the Marcionite version of them is not the original? (I think I can....)

Another option to consider.... What if both the epistles of Paul and the gospel followed the same pattern, and that pattern is this?
  1. Marcion adjusted the gospel, and so did the proto-orthodox.
  2. Marcion adjusted the epistles, and so did the proto-orthodox.
  3. The originals of each are lost to us, and must be reconstructed using both Marcion and the proto-orthodox.

Ben.
Ben C Smith is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 11:56 AM   #66
Regular Member
 
Join Date: May 2007
Location: Los Angeles, US
Posts: 222
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post

It would have outlived its usefulness, being entirely (or nearly so) swallowed up by another gospel.

(A similar scenario is often imagined for Q; once Matthew and Luke absorbed it, few had any real use for it. You mention Q later in your post, but I do not know whether you accept it or not.)

Overall, on a broader level, it is precarious to argue that a text should have survived. Too many texts are lost to us to make such an argument.

Ben.
Texts were lost, but they were not as popular as presumably ur-Luke would be, where if both Luke and Marcion used it, it certainly would be. They may have outlived their usefulness, but that doesn't mean that they can be so lost so late (150 AD) as to leave us speculating only without any textual confirmation. Q is 100 years earlier when there was no widespread Christianity to the extent that we should expect it to be preserved like a document in 150 AD would, if it were this widespread.

It is highly unlikely Luke used Marcion because of the non-logical rearrangement Luke would have to have made (putting Capernaum's healing after Nazareth's preaching). It's quite easily explainable that Marcion cut out the first 2 chapters of Luke and wrote the appearance of Christ in Capernaum. In support of this is the fact that there is no introduction; there is no reason given as to why Christ came, and there is no introduction like Mark 1:1, or something like John 1:1-18. Therefore, Marcion was conscioussly editing out the first chapters of Luke.
renassault is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 12:23 PM   #67
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
I can only point to the way Marcion is said to have treated the Paulines. Again, Tertullian makes the claim that Marcion cut down the letters of Paul. Marcion is said to have contended that here too the truth has been adultered and the letters that spoke of Christ the son of the good God had been Judaized.
I agree that how Marcion handled the epistles is very relevant to deciding how he handled his gospel text. If he mutilated the epistles, then there is prima facie a reason to think that he may have done the same to the gospel.
If "Paul" wrote letters to churches 100 years before Marcion dealing with specific matters, why does 100 year old letters need to be mutilated by Marcion?

It is more likely that Marcion would have written his own document to support his other God and his other son, and not mutilate letters that should have been well known and circulated in the churches 100 years before Marcion.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 12:35 PM   #68
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Midwest
Posts: 4,787
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by renassault View Post
Texts were lost, but they were not as popular as presumably ur-Luke would be, where if both Luke and Marcion used it, it certainly would be. They may have outlived their usefulness, but that doesn't mean that they can be so lost so late (150 AD) as to leave us speculating only without any textual confirmation.
I think you are underestimating the caprice of history. Papias is not preserved for us, either, and was lost much, much later than 150, even though many ancient and medieval fathers referred to him.

Quote:
It is highly unlikely Luke used Marcion because of the non-logical rearrangement Luke would have to have made (putting Capernaum's healing after Nazareth's preaching).
Things like this could just be editorial fatigue.

Ben.
Ben C Smith is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 12:45 PM   #69
Regular Member
 
Join Date: May 2007
Location: Los Angeles, US
Posts: 222
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
I think you are underestimating the caprice of history. Papias is not preserved for us, either, and was lost much, much later than 150, even though many ancient and medieval fathers referred to him.
But he is not unknown and solely speculative, and we have fragments.

Quote:
Things like this could just be editorial fatigue.
That isn't editorial fatigue. Editorial fatigue is when an author is actively changing some designation or phrase and forgets to change it after some time. In this case we have a single rearrangement that doesn't make sense.
renassault is offline  
Old 11-03-2008, 01:06 PM   #70
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: Birmingham UK
Posts: 4,876
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
...............................................
Strictly speaking, my option 3 in this thread says nothing about whether our gospel of Luke came before or after Marcion, but I have used this very passage to argue that it came before. Since, however, I am leaning at present to option 3 rather than to options 1 or 2, my exceedingly tentative (and relative, not absolute) timeline looks something like this:
1. Proto-Luke is written.
2. Canonical Luke is written (along with Acts).
3. Marcion considers canonical Luke to be a Judaized gospel, and reverts back to proto-Luke, probably making adjustments even to that.
Think of all that this scenario explains. Why was the Marcionite gospel anonymous? Because Marcion knew that the gospel attributed to Luke had been based on a proto-gospel that he regarded as the real deal. Why did Marcion consider Luke to be doctored? Because he knew of another gospel that looked similar, but shorter.

The scenario that best competes with this one, IMVHO, is this:
1. Canonical Luke is written (along with Acts), but is anonymous.
2. Marcion considers canonical Luke to be a Judaized gospel, and goes about removing whatever he thought was too Judaistic.
But I have several reservations about this. First, if Marcion chose Luke to modify, I have trouble accepting it as sheer coincidence that Luke happens to be attributed to a companion of Paul, whom Marcion reveres, yet Marcion omitted this information, opting instead for an anonymous text. Second, several scholars have noticed that Marcion must not have done a very good job of excising the Judaistic influences, since Tertullian and other fathers are still able to use his own text against him, and not all of their arguments are a stretch.

Ben.
Hi Ben

I listed earlier some passages found in both Luke and Mark that were apparently missing in Marcion's Gospel. On the other hand Marcion's Gospel certainly contained substantial material found in both Luke and Mark.

If one assumes Marcan priority, then I can find no plausible explanation for this other than Marcion deleting (as Judaistic) some of the material found in the Gospel which he used as a basis for his version.

What do you think ?

Andrew Criddle
andrewcriddle is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 12:52 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.