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02-03-2005, 01:19 PM | #21 | |
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The difference between the two is due more to historical reasons than anything else, the Jewish people were scattered quite often, and really were not established as a country/kingdom for too long and lived in foreign lands, so couldn't afford the caste system rigidity -- however, they did maintain their policy of keeping away from non-jews, which is almost the same with the Indian diaspora abroad...whereas India is a pretty unchanging society, and the caste system became more rigid with foreign incursion...been their for a long time |
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02-03-2005, 03:46 PM | #22 | |
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The "outcasts" would presumably be the slaves the Jewish people took when they were captured in various genocidal raids. But the kill the men, assimilate the boys, and sleep with the women system seemed to be the approach taken, and unlike a true caste system, it doesn't seem that the children of the slave women were eternally the property of the woman's master, although maybe I'm missing something. Also, Hindu Castes are, historically, associated with various waves of invasion by different people from different lands. |
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02-03-2005, 04:25 PM | #23 | |
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02-03-2005, 07:06 PM | #24 | |
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