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Old 01-16-2007, 04:42 PM   #51
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Originally Posted by The Evil One View Post
Given a choice between

(1) passage A is a miracuous prophecy of the future true events in passage B
(2) the events in passage B are a literary invention build around the ancient and revered text of passage A
But this assumes that these are our only two choices. There is another choice: the content of passage A is roughly correct, but was embellished by purported prophecy after the fact.

In an old thread, I pointed this out:

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The problem is that someone comes to the OT cold isn't likely to see crucifixion in the text. Take Psalm 22, for example. To someone looking for a proof text for the crucifixion, verse 16, "My hands and feet are pierced," stands out. The context, however, makes clear that the passage is not about crucifixion, and someone coming to the text without having crucifixion in mind would read that passage differently. Now let's compare two theories:
  • The crucifixion derives from Psalm 22:16,18. (Verse 18 is about casting lots for clothing.)
  • Someone used Psalm 22:16 as a proof text for the tradition of the crucifixion, and then saw verse 18 and used it as embellishment to make Psalm 22 a better fit to the tradition.

Remember that parsimony is about the simplest explanation that fits all the facts. The former theory looks simpler but demands that a reader of Psalm 22 make a big leap. The latter looks more complicated, but explains why someone would see crucifixion in a text that did not imply it. Here, then, the latter explanation is more parsimonious, because it better accounts for how someone would see crucifixion in the Psalm.

Of course, there is the question of where the tradition of the crucifixion came from to start with. There is a parsimonious explanation for that, too, but one which you have shown no interest in accepting.
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Old 01-17-2007, 04:12 AM   #52
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Originally Posted by Ideologist View Post

Right now, the majority of the Pauline epistles seem to be internally consistent in their style and vocabulary
You refer to what is left after we winnow the field of forgeries by different hands, in a context of a huge array of gospels, letters and so forth that were rejected in the official canon but demonstrate how pervasive pious fraud was - after the long history of Jewish writings also not written by the alleged author (eg Moses) or in the period proclaimed within.

So you are left with some "core" Paulina that is written by the same person - and that can be said about Lord of the Rings or Rocky movies.

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they fit with the generally established facts of the time period
What do you mean by this, exactly? There are almost no historical markers whatever. Do you mean there are towns mentioned that actually exist? Like in Gone With the Wind or any other novel doing so? What?

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they are generally consistent in their theology
I'm not sure what value this is to the discussion. So what?

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and were universally regarded as authentic as far back as we can establish their existence.
What do you mean "universally"? Christianity is essentially invisible by your own account in the first century. Who is it that is "agreeing" or "disagreeing" about "authenticity"?

We don't hear of any Paul until Marcion in the second century. We're a century removed from the alleged events by this time. Ultimately, a decision is made about what is "authentic" and canon is established in the third century. So it is more a matter of retroactive authentication of a limited set amongst them, and even then we have disagreement about which of those are from the same hand today.

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Now, yes, Romans and Galatians and Corinthians (among others) might all be forgeries, but if they are, then so too are many of the works of Ignatius, Irenaeus, Justin Martyr, and Polycarp. The more likely conclusion is simply that they are authentic letters.
Well we can all just throw out what we feel is "more likely" without actually demonstrating anything, can't we?

The problem is that you have a premise lying behind all of this that makes for circular reasoning. If you begin with the assumption of a historical Jesus and thereby assume apostles and so on down the line - then of course it is "reasonable" in your mind.

But you don't get to do that when there is no evidence other than forgery (eg Testimonium Flavianum) and the self-witness of the bible.
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Old 01-17-2007, 08:19 AM   #53
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
There is, of course, one possible reason for the lack of documents that I could not argue with: if Jesus were a revolutionary thug, thoroughly dispicable, his followers might well have destroyed any contrary evidence. Or if Jesus were a thoroughly Jewish leader who clearly indicated he did not want to break with Judaism, all of that evidence could have been erased.
Another explanation might be that Jesus was not the miracle worker of the gospels, but an obscure, deranged man whose life - and crucifixion - bore no resemblance at all to Mark's conjectural, derivative tale of piety, suffering and redemption.

There would be no reason for the crucifixion of such a man to be noted, except by a few wild eyed messianists, e.g., Paul, with a propensity to see God's hand in all things.

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Old 01-17-2007, 08:41 AM   #54
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Originally Posted by Didymus View Post
Another explanation might be that Jesus was not the miracle worker of the gospels, but an obscure, deranged man whose life - and crucifixion - bore no resemblance at all to Mark's conjectural, derivative tale of piety, suffering and redemption.

There would be no reason for the crucifixion of such a man to be noted, except by a few wild eyed messianists, e.g., Paul, with a propensity to see God's hand in all things.

Didymus
But even Paul didn't witness a real live execution. Given all of the other information, its much more likely that the story evolved out of other stories and beliefs.

What does this unknown Jesus contribute to the story? That he was crucified and his name was Jesus? There were probably hundreds of people named Jesus crucified in the first century.

I'll see your unknown Jesus crucifixion and raise you Psalm 22, Wisdom of Solomon, 2 Maccabees, The Martyrdom of Isiah, and The Book of Enoch....
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Old 01-17-2007, 08:48 AM   #55
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Would "given what is traditionally said about Jesus" satisfy you?
Not really. You're still relying on the claims of the story itself to add weight to the story. Specifically, that it could have happened because Jesus was clever enough to MAKE it happen.

You suggested that "It's also possible that the Passion was done in deliberate imitation of Psalm 22; given Jesus' background, he should have been able to quote it easily"

As you said yourself, "the difference is between 'possible' and 'plausible.'"

While it is POSSIBLE that a Jesus well-versed in the Hebrew Bible could have deliberately manipulated events to mirror “prophesy”, is this really PLAUSIBLE? Isn't the much simpler answer that the story was WRITTEN to parallel prophesy?
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Old 01-17-2007, 08:57 AM   #56
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Not really. You're still relying on the claims of the story itself to add weight to the story. Specifically, that it could have happened because Jesus was clever enough to MAKE it happen.

You suggested that "It's also possible that the Passion was done in deliberate imitation of Psalm 22; given Jesus' background, he should have been able to quote it easily"

As you said yourself, "the difference is between 'possible' and 'plausible.'"

While it is POSSIBLE that a Jesus well-versed in the Hebrew Bible could have deliberately manipulated events to mirror “prophesy”, is this really PLAUSIBLE? Isn't the much simpler answer that the story was WRITTEN to parallel prophesy?
How exactly was Jesus supposed to manipulate the Romans to cast lots for his clothing? If he could do that then why even bother with this explanation and just say that it was indeed prophesy fulfillment.

Plus, the crucifixion scene doesn't just pull from Psalm 22:

Isaiah 50:
6 I offered my back to those who beat me, my cheeks to those who pulled out my beard; I did not hide my face from mocking and spitting.

Amos 2:
11 I also raised up prophets from among your sons and Nazirites from among your young men. Is this not true, people of Israel?' declares the LORD. 12 'But you made the Nazirites drink wine and commanded the prophets not to prophesy.

Psalm 22:
1 My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
Why are you so far from saving me,
so far from the words of my groaning?
...
7 All who see me mock me;
they hurl insults, shaking their heads:
8 "He trusts in the LORD;
let the LORD rescue him.
Let him deliver him,
since he delights in him."
...
16 Dogs have surrounded me;
a band of evil men has encircled me,
they have pierced my hands and my feet.
17 I can count all my bones;
people stare and gloat over me.
18 They divide my garments among them
and cast lots for my clothing.

Psalm 69:
Insults have broken my heart, so that I am in despair. I looked for pity, but there was none; and for comforters, but I found none. They gave me poison for food, and for my thirst they gave me vinegar to drink.

Amos 8:
8 "Will not the land tremble for this, and all who live in it mourn? ... 9 "In that day," declares the Sovereign LORD, "I will make the sun go down at noon and darken the earth in broad daylight.

Ezekiel 37:
12 Therefore prophesy and say to them: 'This is what the Sovereign LORD says: O my people, I am going to open your graves and bring you up from them; I will bring you back to the land of Israel. 13 Then you, my people, will know that I am the LORD, when I open your graves and bring you up from them. 14 I will put my Spirit in you and you will live, and I will settle you in your own land. Then you will know that I the LORD have spoken, and I have done it, declares the LORD.' "
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Old 01-17-2007, 06:32 PM   #57
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Originally Posted by rlogan View Post
You refer to what is left after we winnow the field of forgeries by different hands, in a context of a huge array of gospels, letters and so forth that were rejected in the official canon but demonstrate how pervasive pious fraud was - after the long history of Jewish writings also not written by the alleged author (eg Moses) or in the period proclaimed within.

So you are left with some "core" Paulina that is written by the same person - and that can be said about Lord of the Rings or Rocky movies.
I'm sorry if I'm misinterpreting you, but I'm not entirely sure as to what you mean.

Yes, certainly, removing forgeries will leave a core that is not a forgery (if still subject to interpolation). Yes, some if not most of those forgeries are pious frauds in the tradition of Jewish authors. Yes, the core of the Pauline materials is relatively small.

How does this make these remaining Pauline materials fake, again?

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What do you mean by this, exactly? There are almost no historical markers whatever. Do you mean there are towns mentioned that actually exist? Like in Gone With the Wind or any other novel doing so? What?
Let us use as our example the Epistle to the Galatians.

- It uses very much the same style as the Epistles to the Corinthians and the Epistle to the Romans, which are also generally undisputed as being Pauline
- Its perspective on the Council of Jerusalem is inconsistent with deliberate forgery, being significantly divergent from that of Acts; a forger of any credibility (and this seems to be an astonishingly good one, given its reputation) would likely have stayed close to the Acts version to give it credibility.
- The topic it addresses (the inclusion of Gentiles) is completely settled by the period forgery-advocates date it. A forgery of this would be odd at best.

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I'm not sure what value this is to the discussion. So what?
If they were inconsistent in their theology it would suggest different authorship; if two of the authentic Pauline epistles unambiguously disputed each other, there would be reasonable basis for rejecting one or the other as a forgery.

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What do you mean "universally"? Christianity is essentially invisible by your own account in the first century. Who is it that is "agreeing" or "disagreeing" about "authenticity"?
Every Church Father who makes any mention of the Pauline epistles includes them; we have quotations of them from Irenaeus, Tertuillian, and Clement of Alexandria among others, and they're in both the Marcion canon and the Muratorian fragment. In other words; if the Early Church didn't accept these, they didn't accept anything.

And "Early Church" is a broad term, extending until the Council of Nicaea.

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We don't hear of any Paul until Marcion in the second century.
Not true; we have quotations of several of the epistles in the works of Ignatius of Antioch, and several more in those of Polycarp of Smyrna.

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We're a century removed from the alleged events by this time.
Ignatius, Polycarp, and others would have either met the Apostles or their immediate successors; it's reasonable to believe that they would have a good idea of what was authentic and what was not.

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Ultimately, a decision is made about what is "authentic" and canon is established in the third century. So it is more a matter of retroactive authentication of a limited set amongst them, and even then we have disagreement about which of those are from the same hand today.
The canon as a list was not established until the third century, no. However, the fact that we have many of these works being taken authoritatively by credible Church Fathers strongly suggests their authenticity.

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Well we can all just throw out what we feel is "more likely" without actually demonstrating anything, can't we?

The problem is that you have a premise lying behind all of this that makes for circular reasoning. If you begin with the assumption of a historical Jesus and thereby assume apostles and so on down the line - then of course it is "reasonable" in your mind.

But you don't get to do that when there is no evidence other than forgery (eg Testimonium Flavianum) and the self-witness of the bible.
Okay, let's go at this from the assumption that Jesus and the Apostles were false, and that their works are second-century forgeries.

This still means that the works of every other credible Church Father are either forgeries are suspect. And it is still more reasonable to believe that they simply did exist.

The reason I'm not demonstrating that Paul of Tarsus or Jesus existed is because it's simply not possible, with the sources we have, to demonstrate that they existed if you don't accept their writings as at least distantly grounded in truth. This is true about nearly all literary figures of the classical world. The reason we don't have citations for their existence isn't necessarily because these references never existed, but simply because they weren't preserved. This is true of most things, and it's the unfortunate job of a historian to work in spite of this.
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Old 01-18-2007, 04:39 PM   #58
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Originally Posted by Malachi151 View Post
I'll see your unknown Jesus crucifixion and raise you Psalm 22, Wisdom of Solomon, 2 Maccabees, The Martyrdom of Isiah, and The Book of Enoch....
Precisely. If we play with language a bit, we get: They SAW an unknown Jesus crucified, and the circumstances of that crucifixion RAISED in their minds Psalm 22, the Wisdom of Solomon, 2 Maccabees, the martyrdom of Isaiah, and the Book of Enoch.

Of course, as you pointed out, such an obscure human Jesus doesn't contribute much to the story. But the crucifixion of such a man does explain the origins of the religion without having to resort either to a purely imaginative mythical figure or to a historical figure whose biography was obviously fabricated from passages in the Septuagint.

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