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Old 03-17-2009, 08:27 AM   #101
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What made the Greeks abandon their established advanced philosophy and settle for the hebrew bible as Europe's foundation - the greeks were the smartest for their times? What made all the pre-islamic Arabs settle for the premise of Abraham and Moses 2500 years later? Why is the world's judiciary excusively based on the Hebrew laws? How does all this become clarified with your concusions?
If you actually knew anything about history and European history specifically. you would know that the tool most used in converting Europe to Christianity was this type of tool:



Europe was not converted to Christianity because it was such an awesome religion or because the christian gods were any more plausible than the current gods, but because of the awesome power of the sword.
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Old 03-17-2009, 08:28 AM   #102
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Maybe Joseph would enjoy the pre-Socratic Greek philosophers, lots of speculation about origins, elements etc

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It does pose a problem, and perhaps one of the most far reaching ones - in its context. If something is derived from a former point, and that former point is a duality - we cannot say the replication is not duality derived and that it appeared without the duality factor. Ultimately, this is about the positive/negative premise: however the universe began, it never happened as only a positive or a negative, then bumped into a counter of itself.
Now, if you do not know how the universe began then it useless trying to convince people that you do. You are just contradicting yourself.

Even if you claim that there is a "duality factor", it is virtually impossible for you to explain how each single element of the duality was derived or when these elements existed or could have bumped each other.

The Hebrew Bible was written when people believed donkeys and serpents could talk and that natural disasters like earthquakes, floods and voclanic eruptions could determine if a person sinned.

The history found in the Hebrew Bible is extremely limited. There is virtually nothing in the Hebrew Bible to help in determing the beginning of the universe, except or unless you think serpents or donkeys can talk the truth.
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Old 03-17-2009, 09:06 AM   #103
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Genesis also says the talking snake is outside this physical realm, namely they were cast down to earth
No, Genesis does not say that. It does not say that the talking snake was outside this physical realm (whatever that means), nor does it say it was cast down to earth. You can easily prove me wrong by quoting Genesis in this regard. Not that it matters. The idea is absurd regardless.

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Now we also have a talking donkey on earth - but again, this is presented as a para-norm,
...and the flying machines in the Vedas are para-norm...and the after life of the pyramid texts is para-norm.. Ancient paranormal claims are just as much bunk as modern ones.

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Now both the snake and the donket have no bearing on actual historicity,
Of course they have bearing. They demonstrate that the text is not inerrant (which is not the default assumption anyway), and should be treated like any other ancient text in regards to historical analysis. If the OT talks about certain kings and empires, they might actually have existed. If it talks about talking snakes or a 35 mile 20 story temple, we dismiss such nonsense as ancient fantasy.

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and are presented as a metaphor.
Well it's good to see that you realize Genesis is not literally true and was probably never intended to be read that way. There's hope for you yet.

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I prefer you quote some historical factor in the same source, there's literally millions of them pervading every word and verse, and deny its veracity?
I'm satisfied treating the Bible as any other ancient text in regards to historical analysis. I don't feel the need to try to prove whether or not ancient Israel existed, or whether it had a king named 'David'. Typically, mundane claims are presumed likely true until disproved or unless such an assumption complicates rather than simplifies. Fantastic claims are assumed false until proven true.

This is exactly how I would have treated it before fundies came along trying to claim it's inerrant.
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Old 03-17-2009, 10:15 AM   #104
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One cannot produce two million popcorns from a popcorn machine without first producing one popcorn
Once again, I understand that you think this is a good analogy, but I'm afraid it doesn't fit in with the discussion of a 'first human' at all well.

Humans developed from earlier mammals as a group. It's like the "paradox of the heap". If I have a small pile of straw and I add more and more straw to that pile, at what stage does it become a heap?

A certain group of apes were developing differently from other apes. At what stage are any of them viewed as human? So when our supposed 'first human' breeds with a supposedly 'non-human' what are their children? Are they half-human, half-ape? Of course not, because then we could never reach a stage where we had a human race! It is a gradual transition with parents and children resembling what we now know as human more and more over a series of many generations. The idea of a singular 'first human' is a nonsense.

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- and that first one requires a duality factor. Its like a mother bearing twins
Do explain further. This analogy is so awful I can't even begin to work out where you made the mistake.

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- each one of them is derived from an underlying duality. There is no absolute ONE anywhere in the universe - that one requires an independent external factor to exist. This is also why we will never find an irreducable and indivisable entity - because everything is based on a minimum of TWO. A lone particle needs a triggering wind or heat particle to conduct an action - and both those entities need a core program to interact and be receptive to each other - again another external factor applies.
And this is relevant how?

If you need a minimum of two, why are you insisting that we must have begun with one? What are you trying to tell me?
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Old 03-17-2009, 10:17 AM   #105
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Now both the snake and the donket have no bearing on actual historicity, and are presented as a metaphor.
Like God and the afterlife.
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Old 03-17-2009, 10:19 AM   #106
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The time factor does not apply - each step of multiplication is based on a duality factor.
You are telling me that a form of development in animals such as, for example, dog breeding, does not take time?
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Old 03-17-2009, 10:21 AM   #107
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At what point in science and math did a first become a ridiculous claim?
A first 'human' became a ridiculous claim in science when it was recognised that it was impossible. What more do you want? :huh:
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Old 03-17-2009, 10:32 AM   #108
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It's impossible to populate a planet with only one couple.
Bad luck for those hoping to bring back the dinosaurs from dna, then.
Who would that be? Jurassic Park is a great piece of science fiction but it is completely implausible in the real world. We already knew this.

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Probably best not to state an opinion involving a very long list of unstated presumptions as a general rule.
Well yes, naturally we can populate a planet with only one of some things because some things do not reproduce in the way we do. For example, some fungus will reproduce by separating into two rather than through sexual reproduction. However, the focus here was human beings and, as with many other mammals, you cannot populate a planet with just one human couple.


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Undoubtedly, presuming all sorts of things are true, at least some of which are stated as not being true in this case.
What they stated was that, in order for a singular couple to populate the world, there would need to be years and years of inbreeding. This is not only true, it is undeniable. A population which can only continue through inbreeding would be unsustainable.

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If you don't believe in magic, but do believe in God, as most people on earth do, it is likewise irrelevant. Perhaps this thought might have occurred to you first?
It doesn't matter whether you believe in magic, God or the Loch Ness Monster. Human beings didn't develop from a singular couple. It has been scientifically demonstrated.
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Old 03-17-2009, 11:00 PM   #109
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The time factor does not apply - each step of multiplication is based on a duality factor.
You are telling me that a form of development in animals such as, for example, dog breeding, does not take time?
No, I'm not saying that. The time factor does not apply - however long it takes before a dog/s emerged - there was first one [singular] dog with a male/female duality - then came 'dogs' plural. There is no alternative to this, and this applies to all life and things in the universe. This is what Genesis's science is saying, al beit saying it in biblespeak.
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Old 03-17-2009, 11:42 PM   #110
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It's like the "paradox of the heap". If I have a small pile of straw and I add more and more straw to that pile, at what stage does it become a heap?
Slight of hand casino science! The heap does not apply - we are not discussing a new species [heap analogy]; we are discussing the emergence of the first member of a heap.

Analogy: red marbles become green postive [male] and green negative [female] marbles every 10 million years. Here, we do not ask when was the 'BOX' [heap] of green marbles appear, but at what point and how, do red marbles become green positive and green negative. This answer requires a zooming in to the first nano point of change. We arrive at a first marble harboring both positive and negative traits - the heap of green positive and negative are post this point. No alternatives apply.

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A certain group of apes were developing differently from other apes. At what stage are any of them viewed as human? So when our supposed 'first human' breeds with a supposedly 'non-human' what are their children? Are they half-human, half-ape? Of course not, because then we could never reach a stage where we had a human race!
Your last line shows you why your thread is not possible. Q: Can you locate the glitch - as opposed accepting all that you read in mandated neo science with a harsh penalty if you question it? This is a Galeleo syndrome, only we have a new church at the helm.

A: humans cannot reach human stage, not because they have to come from apes [where no 'human' attribute exists or ever existed before]; thus the extra bit came from....????? Note, there is no such thing as 'NATURE' in actuality. Apes have not become humans for 5 Billion years - and the time factor does not apply in an on-going process [# 101 math] - which means we must see this process unceasingly, every second, wherever we look, or which ever zoo or lab we house apes.

The glitch is not the commonality factors applying but the differential factors which can only apply! Here, what ToE is saying, the genes, which do NOT possess the Human code, manufactures or adapts to this - in a realm where this facility does not exist - and did not exist ever before. Basically, ToE is saying that a gene not just mutates - but becomes something new - in a realm where there is nowhere for that new to be found. Here, the gradual is irrelevent - the where does the new come from is! ToE says the genes pop their head out and look around - then determines it will be beneficial to have speech - then just tickles its ribs and it happens. Really - then the speech mechanism must have always been hiding in the rib but the genes never saw it before - how else!?

A sub-Zoom analogy here: can a red marble become green - if there is no green in the red to start with?

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It is a gradual transition with parents and children resembling what we now know as human more and more over a series of many generations. The idea of a singular 'first human' is a nonsense.
Its NOT a gradual transition. Examine the issue more deeply, and independently of ToE. Transition is a contradiction of on-going process; measure the time factor for ape to human - 1 million years [let's say]. This process does not cease 1 million + 1 second ago. This gives a ratio of trillions of transit states occuring all the time, in compound increments. The reverse is the case.


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Do explain further. This analogy is so awful I can't even begin to work out where you made the mistake.

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- each one of them is derived from an underlying duality. There is no absolute ONE anywhere in the universe - that one requires an independent external factor to exist. This is also why we will never find an irreducable and indivisable entity - because everything is based on a minimum of TWO. A lone particle needs a triggering wind or heat particle to conduct an action - and both those entities need a core program to interact and be receptive to each other - again another external factor applies.
And this is relevant how?

If you need a minimum of two, why are you insisting that we must have begun with one? What are you trying to tell me?
We do NOT begin with one is my point - this is an impossibility. We begin with one 'duality'.
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