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Old 11-01-2006, 04:14 PM   #61
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No, I mean it's signed as a disciple of Jesus. The question is, does he mean the disciple last spoken about prior to the signature, or another, unknown disciple? In any case, it is signed, so it is not anonymous.
Actually it's not signed. There's a third person singular note at the end which is not a part of the fabric of the document, so when was it added, by whom?

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Originally Posted by hatsoff
Sure I do. All complete extant mss. I've seen include the heading.
When do they date from?

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Originally Posted by hatsoff
And if they were, they wouldn't be anonymous.
It still wouldn't say who actually wrote them.

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Originally Posted by hatsoff
No; why would you think that?
You have no way of showing the position your claims reflect.

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Originally Posted by hatsoff
Because I'm correct.
That sounds like my Helpmabob. The fellow who can't show he's any different from a paranoid schizophrenic.

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Originally Posted by hatsoff
And if that doesn't satisfy you, go look to those who are more qualified than I, and they'll usually tell you the same thing (with a few exceptions, of course--but not many).
So, nothing up your sleeve, but go look up someone else bigger's.

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Originally Posted by hatsoff
Or of course you could just re-evaluate the evidence for yourself.
Nothing you've said has shown me the need to do so. We are left with four documents whose authorship only comes from tradition and there is no way to get beyond tradition to a past reality.


spin
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Old 11-01-2006, 05:01 PM   #62
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You have misread what I said.


spin
Ok so when was the passage from Mark peer reviewed WRT to the primacy of the peshitta or the greek text?

Who did it?
What arguments were examined?
When did they do it?
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Old 11-01-2006, 05:22 PM   #63
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Okay, enough of this.

Stop talking about the Greek texts and put forward your full case for whatever other language you think the gospels were written in, case by case for each gospel.

If you can't put forward your own case then stop whining about the Greek view.
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Old 11-01-2006, 05:53 PM   #64
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Chris you don't know when the gospels were written.

It always amazes me how supposed skeptics are never skeptical about their own beliefs
:banghead:
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Old 11-01-2006, 07:41 PM   #65
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Actually it's not signed. There's a third person singular note at the end which is not a part of the fabric of the document, so when was it added, by whom?

When do they date from?

It still wouldn't say who actually wrote them.

You have no way of showing the position your claims reflect.

That sounds like my Helpmabob. The fellow who can't show he's any different from a paranoid schizophrenic.

So, nothing up your sleeve, but go look up someone else bigger's.

Nothing you've said has shown me the need to do so. We are left with four documents whose authorship only comes from tradition and there is no way to get beyond tradition to a past reality.
I don't really feel like debating someone so rude. Besides, you don't seem to understand what I'm telling you.
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Old 11-01-2006, 08:42 PM   #66
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Actually it's not signed. There's a third person singular note at the end which is not a part of the fabric of the document, so when was it added, by whom?

When do they date from?

It still wouldn't say who actually wrote them.

You have no way of showing the position your claims reflect.

That sounds like my Helpmabob. The fellow who can't show he's any different from a paranoid schizophrenic.

So, nothing up your sleeve, but go look up someone else bigger's.

Nothing you've said has shown me the need to do so. We are left with four documents whose authorship only comes from tradition and there is no way to get beyond tradition to a past reality.
I don't really feel like debating someone so rude.
Debating is about comparing information, not literary criticism.

If you cannot deal with the epistemological requirements of your position, how can you debate it? And what you may call "rude" may be asking you to provide more than what you seem willing to do.

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Originally Posted by hatsoff
Besides, you don't seem to understand what I'm telling you.
I don't think you have analysed what you are trying to tell me, because you appear to be making claims you cannot support.


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Old 11-02-2006, 10:29 AM   #67
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You hit it perfectly this time, Yuri. You're absolutely correct: it's an argument that children understand, but not college-trained professionals, because, unlike children, professors can easily see the fallacy in the statement. It's a non-sequitur, pure and simple. Just because Christianity started in Palestine, does not in any way, shape, or form mean that the gospels, written decades after the events are purpoted to have happened, were written there as well.

Was Lucretius writing in Greek because that's where Epicureanism was started? The argument is shallow and insipid. Sorry Doug, try again.
You don't know where the gospels were written.

Yuri.
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Old 11-02-2006, 11:00 AM   #68
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By improving the text.


How would that explain Latinisms and explanations for a Latin audience?


It's dependence on Mk.


That's right. Take Matthew for example.


spin
How am I expected to reply to this? This looks like total gibberish...

What we need here is 3 levels of quotation, in order to make the context clear. But then I'll need to go to 2 previous posts, in order to fill in the blanks.

Is there some software function at IIDB that I'm missing?

_______________

spin:
The gospels as we have them are anonymous works, which give no clue to whoever wrote them. The text that became known as Matthew, acknowledges its derivation from the text we call by the Latin name Mark,

Yuri:
How does it acknowledge its derivation?

spin:
By improving the text.

Yuri:
He does not improve the text.

___________________

spin:
which certainly was not written in anything other than a Latin influenced Greek.

Yuri:
But maybe it was based on something else?

spin:
How would that explain Latinisms and explanations for a Latin audience?

Yuri:
The author was writing for a Latin audience.

____________________

spin:
Whatever the church fathers were referring to as written in Hebrew does not relate to our Matthew.

Yuri:
Why not?

spin:
It's [sic] dependence on Mk.

Yuri:
Which is highly debatable.

_____________________

spin:
It is also interesting to note that the Eusebius passage does not mention Matthew as being the Hebrew text Hegesippus referred to.

Yuri:
The original names were not the same as later names.

spin:
That's right. Take Matthew for example.

Yuri:
That's right.

Regards,

Yuri.

Yuri Kuchinsky -=O=- http://www.trends.ca/~yuku

"Students achieving Oneness will move on to Twoness."
--- W. Allen
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Old 11-02-2006, 12:11 PM   #69
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I'm still waiting for ONE person, just one, to present ANY evidence that any gospel was originally written in any language other than Greek.

So far I've seen a bunch of noise about claims that we shouldn't believe that the gospels were written in Greek, yet I've not seen any case be made that they were written in another language.

Once again, sounds like ID "theory" to me...
:banghead: :banghead: :banghead: Ignorance is not an argument either.

So that you can do your homework, here are TWO persons presenting MANY evidences that the gospel was first written in Hebrew: Dubourg and Tresmontant. The evidence presented is overwhelming.
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Old 11-02-2006, 12:20 PM   #70
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Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky View Post
spin:
The gospels as we have them are anonymous works, which give no clue to whoever wrote them. The text that became known as Matthew, acknowledges its derivation from the text we call by the Latin name Mark,

Yuri:
How does it acknowledge its derivation?

spin:
By improving the text.

Yuri:
He does not improve the text.
Quite right and even quite the contrary. He simplifies it a lot (censored). And he dit it from an Hebrew text not from a Greek text. As one of the first/oldest gospel text "Mt" was the most edited one and the latest...
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