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04-08-2008, 12:02 PM | #21 | ||
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Do we consider the opinion of an amateur poster in this forum living 2,000 years later on these topics valuable? I wouldn't consider my own amateur opinions on what a first century writer 'must' include in his book very valuable! All the best, Roger Pearse |
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04-08-2008, 12:12 PM | #22 | |
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It is, of course, quite irrelevant that there are anonymous manuscripts from the second century claiming Jesus of Bethlehem existed. |
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04-08-2008, 12:14 PM | #23 | |
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This is an admission that there is no contemporary evidence. |
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04-08-2008, 12:17 PM | #24 | |
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Ben. |
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04-08-2008, 12:31 PM | #25 | ||
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Well, P52 quotes John more or less verbatim, which suggests it's a quote for John, which does mention Jesus. It is difficult to put any other construction on it. I don't quite know what you mean that it is "irrelevant" that anonymous mss from the 2nd century mention Jesus. That's what history is: mss mentioning people. So when a person is mentioned in an ancient ms, it is always relevant. The next issue is to determine the reliability of that reference, and that is a complex process. But proximity in time is certainly a factor, and as far as antiquity goes, a mss within a 100 to 200 years of a person's purported death is darn good. Indeed, virtually unprecedented. I would note the only convincing proof of Alexander's existence (using your standard) is the Astronomical Diaries, which are anonymous, and as far as that goes, could have been written by Greeks engaging in some historical rewritting. They do appear to be tendentious. |
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04-08-2008, 12:40 PM | #26 | ||
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04-08-2008, 12:44 PM | #27 | ||
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So you are comparing manuscripts which don't contain the name Jesus with manuscripts that do contain the name of Alexander, and claiming the manuscript evidence is better for Jesus. And then you took great care to point out that one manuscript for Alexander didn't have his full name, while trumpeting a manuscript which didn't contain the name of Jesus at all. Is it possible to get just the one set of standards to use please? And 'verbatim' is a strange word to use for P52 which I don't think contains 3 consecutive whole words. All that the early Christian manuscripts show is that early Christian scribes would change what was written when they wanted to make them comform better to Christian doctrine. We know from Paul's letters that people were preaching a different Jesus to the one he preached. Perhaps one of the different Jesus's was the Jesus of Mark's and John's Gospels. |
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04-08-2008, 12:45 PM | #28 | |
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Paul was hardly close to the events of the Exodus which is where he places Jesus. |
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04-08-2008, 12:52 PM | #29 | ||
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I think you're protesting too much. The combination of words in P52 can only be explained by being a quote from John, which we have fine mss of from 300 or so onward, or by being a bizarre anagrammical coincidence. Take your pick. So it appears John's gospel existed within 100 years of so of Jesus's death, at the very least, which in paleographic time is darn good. Regarding Paul and the preaching of a different Jesus, well, I think that makes my point not yours. The historical Jesus had already spawned by the time of Paul's ministry, legends and alternate histories and revisions, as is often the case with historical figures who make a local impact and then get universalized. Joseph Smith comes to mind. As does Alexander. |
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04-08-2008, 12:55 PM | #30 | ||
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