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Old 05-16-2009, 08:53 AM   #71
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic View Post
. . .

In the first century, Christianity was apparently a very small movement. In "The Rise of Christianity," Rodney Stark estimates that in 100 A.D., there were 7,530 Christians in the entire world. In chapter 1, Stark mentions a lot of evidence, including archaeological and papyrological evidence, that indicates a very small early Christian church.

Logically, if a God wanted to provide much better evidence for the resurrection of Jesus, he could easily have accomplished that.
Rodney Stark doesn't support your argument, instead Stark presents that church growth started small then began to expand exponentially as christians themselves were the witnesses for people to convert. . .

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Surely it is not surprising that the 7,535 Christians at the end of the first century left no trace. By 189, when I project the total Christian population first passed the 100,000 mark, there would finally have been enough Christians so that it is probable that traces of their existence would survive. . . As an additional test of these projection, Robert M. Grant has calculated that there were 7,000 Christians in Rome at the end of the second century. If we also accept Grant's estimate of 700,000 as the population of Rome for that year, then 1 percent of the population of Rome had been converted by the year 200.. . In an empire having a population of at least 60 million, there might well have been 33 million Christians by 350. . .Looking at the rise of a Christian majority as purely a function of a constant rate of growth calls into serious question the empahsis given by Eusebius and others to the conversion of Constantine as the factor that produced the Christian majority. . .



http://books.google.com/books?id=HcF...ark+population
How can you cite Stark to support your arguments in any way whatsoever?
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Old 05-16-2009, 09:19 AM   #72
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In the first century, Christianity was apparently a very small movement. In "The Rise of Christianity," Rodney Stark estimates that in 100 A.D., there were 7,530 Christians in the entire world. In chapter
1, Stark mentions a lot of evidence, including archaeological and papyrological evidence, that indicates a very small early Christian church.

Logically, if a God wanted to provide much better evidence for the resurrection of Jesus, he could easily have accomplished that.
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Originally Posted by arnoldo
Rodney Stark doesn't support your argument, instead Stark presents that church growth started small then began to expand exponentially as Christians themselves were the witnesses for people to convert.
On the contrary, I said "In the first century, Christianity was apparently a very small movement." 7,530 Christians in the entire world in 100 A.D. is certainly a very small movement. The book of Acts says that 3,000 people became Christians after a brief sermon by Peter. Do you believe that that event happened? If so, obviously not much happened regarding the growth of the Christian church from that time until after 100 A.D.

Regarding Christianity's eventual rapid growth, that only became possible after all of the supposed still living eyewitnesses died. Until then, since Jesus did not perform any miracles, and since he did not rise from the dead, when people checked things out, the usual response was "What miracles, and what Resurrection? We did not see any miracles, and we did not see Jesus after he rose from the dead."

Logically, if Jesus performed many miracles, and rose from the dead, and appeared to over 500 people in one place after he rose from the dead, the first century would have been the most likely time for the most rapid growth in the Christian church due to the presence of thousands of still living eyewitnesses. Obviously, that did not happen.

Consider the following Scriptures:

Matthew 4:23-25

"And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people. And his fame went throughout all Syria: and they brought unto him all sick people that were taken with divers diseases and torments, and those which were possessed with devils, and those which were lunatick, and those that had the palsy; and he healed them. And there followed him great multitudes of people from Galilee, and from Decapolis, and from Jerusalem, and from Judaea, and from beyond Jordan."

Jesus went throughout "all Galilee," and "throughout all Syria," and "[healed] all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people," and yet, what non-Christian, first century sources confirm the miracles?

Do you know of any eyewitness testimonies in Matthew, Mark, and Luke. John was written too late to be of much value to Christians.

There is a lot of secular evidence that explains why Christianity eventually grew rapidly, and a lot of the secular evidence is in Stark's book.
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Old 05-16-2009, 09:28 AM   #73
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Originally Posted by arnoldo

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"Surely it is not surprising that the 7,530 Christians at the end of the first century left no trace." http://books.google.com/books?id=HcF...ark+population
Well of course it is not surprising that only 7,530 Christians left no trace. I have never said anything to the contrary. What is surprising is that Roman records do not say a lot about the miracles that Jesus supposedly performed, and, as a side note, that only the Old Testement mentions the Ten Plagues in Egypt. If the Ten Plagues occured, they would easily have been the most important news events of the century, if not the millennia, and historians from all over the Middle East and beyond would have recorded them.
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Old 05-16-2009, 09:28 AM   #74
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No Roger, that would not be enough. We need to understand where the texts originate , how they relate to each other, and what was going on in the world and the church at the time the documents were supposedly written, and at the time they were presented.
I agree to some extent, but not on the key point, I suspect.

We cannot reasonably use this as a reason not to tabulate the data and see what it says. After all, how else can we find out any of these things -- where the texts originate, how they relate to each other, the history of the culture and the church --, except... by looking at the texts and seeing what they say!

By all means make the framework of the question larger, if you think it relevant; but as far as I can see, it runs the risk of increasing the labour of discovering what the data is, without measurably assisting us.

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Why would not Irenaues...
This seems to be reiteration; I refer you to my earlier reply.

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My point was that the letter to Florinus comes from Eusebius and that Irenaeus's own writing fails to support it.
I would only observe that we have moved from "Irenaeus does not say..." to "Irenaeus does not say in one of the only two works now extant..."

Is this a suggestion that Eusebius composed Irenaeus' Letter to Florinus? but if so, you would need to establish this, and even then... I feel averse to such arguments, such attempts to debunk primary sources. We all know the tricks of the debunker these days. They don't usually help us.

Just a general point for lurkers: some perhaps are unaware that the works of Eusebius are a treasure-house of quotations from the library of Origen and Pamphilus at Caesarea. His habit of verbatim citation, unusual in antiquity, is one of his great contributions to the development of modern historical scholarship, because later writers followed him.

Every ancient literary text comes to us by being copied; whether the copies are standalone, or embedded in other works makes no difference. An example might be the De Abstinentia of Porphyry, which is quoted in Eusebius Praeparatio Evangelica, but has also reached us in direct transmission. But the latter is so damaged that Eusebius' quotations give us generally a better text.

Another letter of Irenaeus, relating to the Florinus business, is extant in Syriac fragments.

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I don't quite see the force of the argument that Irenaeus was not allowed to say "Polycarp was instructed by apostles" but had to say "Polycarp was instructed by apostles and specially John", or else he wasn't instructed by John. He wasn't concerned to answer such an objection.
It is a forceful argument... (argument from silence snipped)
As I remarked above, I do not see the force of it.

The remainder of the argument seems to consist of an appeal to a speculation as to what the text "must" say, in our opinion, if John taught Polycarp? That type of argument does not seem valid to me, whatever it is made in respect of. For it to work, surely we would need to know much more than we do about the circumstances of composition of any ancient work?

Trying to look into the mind of a writer and second-guess him, from 2,000 years distance and across an unimaginable cultural gap, must be pure guesswork. What we always need to see is hard data which can be tested.

But I think that we have established that ancient sources tell us that John was Polycarp's teacher, which I think was the point at issue.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 05-16-2009, 10:42 AM   #75
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Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
...Rodney Stark doesn't support your argument, instead Stark presents that church growth started small then began to expand exponentially as christians themselves were the witnesses for people to convert. . .

...

http://books.google.com/books?id=HcFSaGvgKKkC
How can you cite Stark to support your arguments in any way whatsoever?
This isn't quite what Stark says. He says that the evidence is explained by a growth rate based on social contact that is not typical of new religions (it is "exponential" because that's what growth rates are by definition.)

He explains the growth of the church not by Christian witness, but by their care for the sick, taking in foundlings, and other social practices that do not prove the existnence of their god or of Jesus.
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Old 05-16-2009, 10:50 AM   #76
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6. I remember the events of that time more clearly than those of recent years. For what boys learn, growing with their mind, becomes joined with it; so that I am able to describe the very place in which the blessed Polycarp sat as he discoursed, and his goings out and his comings in, and the manner of his life, and his physical appearance, and his discourses to the people, and the accounts which he gave of his intercourse with John and with the others who had seen the Lord. And as he remembered their words, and what he heard from them concerning the Lord, and concerning his miracles and his teaching, having received them from eyewitnesses of the 'Word of life,' Polycarp related all things in harmony with the Scriptures.
No information from Eusebius or Irenaeus is about a human only Jesus, it is about a God and man called Jesus Christ.

Church History 2.1.2
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……Joseph was supposed to be the father of Christ, because the Virgin, being betrothed to him, was found with child by the Holy Ghost before they came together, as the account of the holy Gospels shows.
Church History 3.5.2
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2. For the Jews after the ascension of our Saviour, in addition to their crime against him, had been devising as many plots as they could against his apostles. First Stephen was stoned to death by them, and after him James, the son of Zebedee and the brother of John, was beheaded.
All the information from the Church is about an entity that was born of a virgin without sexual union called Jesus Christ who ascended to heaven. There is no other Jesus Christ in the writings of Clement of Rome, Ignatius, Polycarp, Papias, Justin Martyr, Clement of Alexandria, Hegesippus, the NT, Irenaeus, Tertullian, Origen, Eusebius and other church writers.

Jesus Christ was presented as a God and man in virtually every single document from the Church.

Jesus Christ must be the most documented myth in history.
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Old 05-16-2009, 01:00 PM   #77
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Interestingly John is said to have seen the Lord.

It would be very interesting if we are looking at a group vision of the Christ that later got historicised into a bloke called Jesus preaching around Galillee.

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I remember the events of that time more clearly than those of recent years. For what boys learn, growing with their mind, becomes joined with it; so that I am able to describe the very place in which the blessed Polycarp sat as he discoursed, and his goings out and his comings in, and the manner of his life, and his physical appearance, and his discourses to the people, and the accounts which he gave of his intercourse with John and with the others who had seen the Lord. And as he remembered their words, and what he heard from them concerning the Lord, and concerning his miracles and his teaching, having received them from eyewitnesses of the 'Word of life,' Polycarp related all things in harmony with the Scriptures.
They thought their visions were of the Word!

And who is the Lord here? Is it the Greek Yahweh again?
(PS - Polycarp is reporting hearsay isn't he?)
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Old 05-16-2009, 01:31 PM   #78
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Originally Posted by Clivedurdle View Post
Interestingly John is said to have seen the Lord.

It would be very interesting if we are looking at a group vision of ...(speculation snipped)
Heh. Wouldn't it be considerably more interesting if someone were going to come out with some original "Jesus: the real story"? These ones are SO dreary, and SO stale. Bring on the dancing girls, boys, if you want our attention.

I favour the Eric von Daniken one myself. Better artwork, you know. Good old Eric, where is he now?

Indeed I remember days when some atheists were still going around proclaiming the "Jesus was an astronaut" story, with the utmost confidence. Where did they all go, I wonder?

Indeed -- memory taking me back -- I even remember some wonk proclaiming (in the mid 80's) that LSD didn't do you any harm. I've always thought that much of modern life is best understood, if you realise that our leaders and thinkers spent their youth using drugs. One look at their policies, and you learn that drugs really do cause brain damage.

(Sorry if you meant your comments seriously. They just triggered my sense of the ridiculous.)

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 05-16-2009, 02:13 PM   #79
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Originally Posted by Roger Pearse View Post
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Originally Posted by Solo View Post
No Roger, that would not be enough. We need to understand where the texts originate , how they relate to each other, and what was going on in the world and the church at the time the documents were supposedly written, and at the time they were presented.
I agree to some extent, but not on the key point, I suspect.

We cannot reasonably use this as a reason not to tabulate the data and see what it says. After all, how else can we find out any of these things -- where the texts originate, how they relate to each other, the history of the culture and the church --, except... by looking at the texts and seeing what they say!
....and note how they support each other or where they are at odds.

Quote:
By all means make the framework of the question larger, if you think it relevant; but as far as I can see, it runs the risk of increasing the labour of discovering what the data is, without measurably assisting us.
...I'd gladly run the risk


Quote:
Quote:
Why would not Irenaues...
This seems to be reiteration; I refer you to my earlier reply.
But there was a series of issues that I see as relating to each other. It's not just that Irenaeus does not know how to assert Polycarp's relation to John, but also that Polycarp leaves no trace of it, and the copy of letter to Florinus that Eusebius presents seems to be refering to John in a formulaic manner (as one of the apostles who saw the Lord) which belies a notion of personal relationship.


Quote:
Is this a suggestion that Eusebius composed Irenaeus' Letter to Florinus? but if so, you would need to establish this, and even then... I feel averse to such arguments, such attempts to debunk primary sources. We all know the tricks of the debunker these days. They don't usually help us.

Just a general point for lurkers: some perhaps are unaware that the works of Eusebius are a treasure-house of quotations from the library of Origen and Pamphilus at Caesarea. His habit of verbatim citation, unusual in antiquity, is one of his great contributions to the development of modern historical scholarship, because later writers followed him.
Some lurkers are perhaps also unaware that Eusebius openly advocated pious fraud in the cause of furthering the faith. Here is an excerpt from his Praeparatio Evangelica 12.31:

Quote:
....it is necessary sometimes to use falsehood as a medicine for those who need such an approach. [As said in Plato's Laws 663e by the Athenian:] 'And even the lawmaker who is of little use, if even this is not as he considered it, and as just now the application of logic held it, if he dared lie to young men for a good reason, then can't he lie? For falsehood is something even more useful than the above, and sometimes even more able to bring it about that everyone willingly keeps to all justice.' [then by Clinias:] 'Truth is beautiful, stranger, and steadfast. But to persuade people of it is not easy.' You would find many things of this sort being used even in the Hebrew scriptures, such as concerning God being jealous or falling asleep or getting angry or being subject to some other human passions, for the benefit of those who need such an approach.
For the context see Richard Carrier's study here.

Fair is fair. I don't know whether Eusebius composed the letter, and frankly doubt it. He conceivably may have received a copy which had already been manipulated, and perhaps only in adding "John" to the mention of apostles, in the original text by Irenaeus. Yes, perhaps, in this instance he did not forge himself. Perhaps, the text was not forged at all. But boy does the mention of John ever look suspect !

Quote:
But I think that we have established that ancient sources tell us that John was Polycarp's teacher, which I think was the point at issue.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
You (whoever it is you are speaking for in the plural) have established no such thing. If the evidence you have shown is all you have, you (the gang) might as well proceed directly to territio realis.

Jiri
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Old 05-16-2009, 02:29 PM   #80
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In the first century, Christianity was apparently a very small movement. In "The Rise of Christianity," Rodney Stark estimates that in 100 A.D., there were 7,530 Christians in the entire world. In chapter 1, Stark mentions a lot of evidence, including archaeological and papyrological evidence, that indicates a very small early Christian church.
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
Rodney Stark doesn't support your argument, instead Stark presents that church growth started small then began to expand exponentially as Christians themselves were the witnesses for people to convert.
And what is my argument? Well, I said:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
In the first century, Christianity was apparently a very small movement.
Stark supports my argument because 7,530 Christians in the entire world in 100 A.D. is certainly a very small movement.

The book of Acts says that 3,000 people became Christians after a brief sermon by Peter. Do you believe that that event happened? If so, obviously not much happened regarding the growth of the Christian church from that time until after 100 A.D.

Regarding Christianity's eventual rapid growth, that only became possible after all of the supposed still living eyewitnesses died. Until then, since Jesus did not perform any miracles, and since he did not rise from the dead, when people checked things out, the usual response to their investigations was "What miracles, and what Resurrection? We did not see any miracles, and we did not see Jesus after he rose from the dead?"

Logically, if Jesus performed many miracles, and rose from the dead, and appeared to over 500 people in one place after he rose from the dead, the first century would have been the most likely time for the most rapid growth in the Christian church due to the presence of thousands of still living eyewitnesses who could have verified claims of miracles, and Jesus' appearances after he rose from the dead. Obviously, the Christian church did not start to grow rapidly until after 100 A.D.

Consider the following Scriptures:

Matthew 4:23-25

"And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people. And his fame went throughout all Syria: and they brought unto him all sick people that were taken with divers diseases and torments, and those which were possessed with devils, and those which were lunatick, and those that had the palsy; and he healed them. And there followed him great multitudes of people from Galilee, and from Decapolis, and from Jerusalem, and from Judaea, and from beyond Jordan."

Jesus went throughout "all Galilee," and "throughout all Syria," and "[healed] all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people," and yet, what non-Christian, first century sources confirm the miracles?

Do you know of any eyewitness testimonies in Matthew, Mark, and Luke? John was written too late to be of much value to Christians.

There is a lot of secular evidence that explains why Christianity eventually grew rapidly, and a lot of the secular evidence is in Stark's book.

Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo

Quote:

"Surely it is not surprising that the 7,530 Christians at the end of the first century left no trace." http://books.google.com/books?id=HcF...ark+population
Where did you get the idea that I said that it is surprising that 7,530 Christians at the end of the first century left no trace? Well of course it is not surprising that only 7,530 Christians left no trace. I have never said anything to the contrary. What is surprising is that Roman records do not say a lot (actually very little) about the miracles that Jesus supposedly performed. As a side note, it is surprising that only the Old Testement mentions the Ten Plagues in Egypt. If the Ten Plagues occured, they would easily have been the most important news events of the century, if not the millennia, and historians from all over the Middle East and beyond would have recorded them.
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