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05-30-2012, 02:48 PM | #191 | |
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I think mythers have to decide whether they are arguing for the irrationality of Christianity or the fact that the apostle(s) really claimed to have met an extraterrestrial. Even a supernatural encounter would have generated some contemporary notoriety. It seems to me that mythers want to argue that Christianity 'duped' the world into believing Jesus was a historical person. This is a compound argument involving two premises (a) that Christianity duped people and that (b) Jesus was not a person. Read together the argument seems to imply that Christianity never happened. Nevertheless we should really be arguing for just (b). It's impossible to prove that a historical event 'never happened.' It's a bad argumentative tactic. Like a country deciding to invade another country without a plan. |
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05-30-2012, 02:55 PM | #192 | |||
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Matthew was written in Greek and mostly used LXX type references for its scriptural source, so it is unsurprising to consider that Hebrew material came to the gospel via the Greek. Comparing the Greek will obviously help show the literary relationship, if any, between them. I've already mentioned the phonological relationships between the Hebrew tsade and possible Greek equivalents, sigma and zeta, and that the evidence strongly favors the sigma. A hypothetical source for Nazarene almost certainly requires a zayin not a tsade in the Hebrew. That should rule out the popular but misguided branch theory derived from Isa 11:1. Besides, the gospel writer evidently had no problem naming Isaiah in his text, yet only talks about "the prophets" in 2:23 and, given that Judges was considered among the "former prophets", it would better fit the generic description found in Mt. The Greek helps us to understand that the process from an underlying Hebrew notion to the text of Matthew was mediated: it didn't come directly from the Hebrew but was transformed through the Greek translation before it reached the gospel. Not once in all the Nazarene/Nazareth/Nazorean references in the gospels does a sigma appear, emphasizing that there was no netzer source. There is no direct relevance of Isa 11:1, yet the connection with Jdg 13:5,7 is transparent, especially when Mt had alluded to the same source in the 1st chapter, for, as Samson would save Israel, so would the coming child save his people. |
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05-30-2012, 02:57 PM | #193 | ||||||||
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Gday,
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Someone wrote about Apollonius, Jesus could have been mentioned. Quote:
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He satirised Christians, could easily have mentioned Jesus. Quote:
Thanks for your detailed reply spin, I'll update my list with some of these coments. Kapyong |
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05-30-2012, 04:10 PM | #194 | |||
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05-30-2012, 04:21 PM | #195 | |||
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And did I say that the term "Nazorean" was based on a prophecy? It may well have been, but the point is how Matthew converted the term to "of Nazareth". Earl Doherty |
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05-30-2012, 04:39 PM | #196 |
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If I thought that, I wouldn't be pointing out the word clan that was missed but thanks for saving me from wasting money on a book who's author calls people naive.
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05-30-2012, 04:50 PM | #197 | ||
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There is also the matter that Pausanius does not mention any shrine, or temple, or church, or church-house or house-church dedicated to Jesus cult even though he reports hundreds of instances of other shrines and temples etc etc etc. Of course this strays from the original purpose of the list that examines the mention of the figure of Jesus, and not the mention of the existence of christians or their monuments and shrines etc. Pausanius thus also presents a "great silence" of christian archaeology. He apparently must not have seen first hand a christian shrine or monument in his travels in 2nd century Greece. Perhaps there were none after all. |
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05-30-2012, 05:03 PM | #198 | |
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Those who cannot see and/or evaluate this spectrum of MJ beliefs continue to exercise traditional and conditioned myopia in their so-called academic objectivity. |
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05-30-2012, 05:23 PM | #199 |
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I must really have nothing to do today but here is my follow up.
It is really pointless to have a 'debate' over whether Jesus 'was a myth' or not. The tradition view is without question based on faith. Anyone who tells you 'the facts' prove that there was a historical Jesus is an idiot. Nevertheless we just can't just wave a magic wand and say that there is some formula or evidence that proves the contrary (= that Jesus didn't exist). In some ways it just comes down to taste. Chocolate really isn't more truthful than vanilla (although one could develop an argue why it is that more people might like chocolate). As I have said many times before, the best argument for early Christians believing that Jesus wasn't human is found in the early testimonies themselves. There are dozens of reports which confirm this reality. To go beyond Church Father X reports that heretic Y held Z to be true is for the most part a waste of time. |
05-30-2012, 05:29 PM | #200 |
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