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Old 05-30-2006, 10:03 AM   #491
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Originally Posted by J-D
But I don't see from what you say that Stark deals with the question I am interested in, which is whether there is some way the Christian movement could have originated other than as the following of an original leader/teacher/preacher.
And elsewhere:
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Originally Posted by J-D
Remember, my original point was about the origin of Christianity-the-organisation, not Christianity-the-idea.
Well, I don't know of any books on organizational dynamics that specifically address early Christianity. There are modern textbooks on the general subject, however, but I don't think most of them regard a single "original leader/teacher/preacher" as essential for the founding, growth and success of an organization. On the other hand, you seem to think that the existence of such an individual is axiomatic. Can you explain why?

As I'm sure you know, the course of early Christian history is set forth (and mythologized) by Luke in Acts (the apostolic tradition, with much credit to Paul) and by Eusebius in the Ecclesiastical History (the church fathers). Neither puts Jesus in the role of "organization man" or tells us that he played any significant role in the founding of the Church.

(Of course, whether or not he existed, his purported life and teachings constituted "Christianity-the-idea." But you said that's not what you're looking for.)

I'm not sure where you've gotten the idea that Jesus did anything by way of organizing the Church (except for "sending forth" the apostles), since it didn't even exist until the middle of the 2nd century.

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Old 05-30-2006, 01:27 PM   #492
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Originally Posted by J-D
The absence of a clear alternative explanation for the first origins of the movement.
But the alleged beginnings of this movement are anything but clear!

Didache might be earliest, with Revelation. Very unclear about HJ.

Paul - might be as late as 130. No clear mention of HJ.

Mark - all the hallmarks of a novel and or play.


Others derivative.

Eusebius clear political reasons to make superstitio into religio.

Letter to emperor about 100 shows evidence of a sect with cultic beliefs verging on treachery - refusal to worship gods - and crime of atheism. It might be a revolutionary idea but it does not need one person to have thought it.

On other examples - flash gordon, superman, Christ is a classic superhero figure!
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Old 05-30-2006, 03:13 PM   #493
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Originally Posted by J-D
The absence of a clear alternative explanation for the first origins of the movement.
So what is the conventional explanation? Does it really rely on an HJ?

HJ offers no greater role for Jesus than does MJ. Whether Jesus was historical or not, the disciples and the church fathers, not Jesus, carried the water for the movement.

You keep defining "first origins" in organizational terms, but there was no organization in the "first origins" phase. No church appears until after he was dead. Then Luke comes along to purportedly explain what took place AFTER the Crucifixion, i.e., the Apostolic Tradition. I keep getting the feeling that you not really cognizant of the conventional explanation for church origins! If you were, you wouldn't confuse "first origins" (the alleged ministry of Jesus) with the process of organizing the Christian church. Nor would you place much importance on the role of a "leader/teacher/preacher" in an organizational process that took place after his death!

Jesus, whether he was historical or not, was not a factor in organizational development. He set no organizational goals, created no heirarchy, and handed out no job assignments beyond a vague "go forth."

Even if he had been more specific, whether Jesus' words came from a single man or from Mark and the other NT writers wouldn't have mattered so long as the words were believed to have come from Jesus. He was the raison alright, but he did not form a church.

And even if he had existed, the apostles and church fathers played out their roles in his absence.

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Old 05-30-2006, 06:31 PM   #494
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Originally Posted by Geetarmoore
seems to be? The question is, what movement was Paul preaching to?
Exactly! Exactly! That is the question! And if the answer isn't 'the movement of followers of Jesus' then what is it?
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Originally Posted by Geetarmore
I don't know that anyone believes this - who believes, for example, that multiple people had the exact same vision at the exact same time. I for sure don't. I believe that once someone suggests a vision, other people can claim to have quite similar ones..

"I was abducted by aliens."...

"Me too! I was abducted by aliens too!"....

"Yea - we all were abducted by aliens!!".....
But do you know of any confirmed instances in which a religion got started this way?
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Originally Posted by Geetarmore
The way I read it, Paul was preaching on his revelational vision of Christ as the savior who was foretold in the Jewish scriptures, and he was writing to a community that was primed for just such an mystery idea.
But what community was that, if it wasn't 'the community of the followers of Jesus'?
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Old 05-30-2006, 07:26 PM   #495
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Well then you can assert that there were people who believed in UFO’s then as well. I don’t think I said that groups of Christians could not have existed before Paul. All I’ve said is that we have no idea how many there were, how large they were, what they believed or what was the source of that belief. Any writings they may have had are presently lost. I’m not sure what difference there is in CtO and CtI.
I assume that you are aware, in general terms, of the meanings of 'organisation' and 'idea', but I'm happy to give further specific illustration. It is very common for a political party (to take examples from another kind of organisation) to stand for political ideas different from those for which it stood when it was first founded, even if it is has a continuous organisational history. Thus the question of how the party first came into being can be--and must be--answered without the political position it currently occupies being part of the explanation. Taking a slightly different example, the questions 'did Andrew Jackson and Thomas Jefferson stand for the same political ideas' and 'did Andrew Jackson and Thomas Jefferson lead the same political organisation' are two different questions, and the answer to the one doesn't necessarily depend on the answer to the other. Thus, when I ask 'what was the historical origin of Christianity', I am not asking the different question 'what was the origin of a religion whose doctrines include the Trinity, the Incarnation, the Resurrection, and the Redemption', since I do not assume that those doctrines were necessarily held by the first Christians. I entertain the possibility that Jesus is the answer to the first question (that is, a group of followers gathered around him were the first Christians) but not the answer to the second question (that is, he did not teach those doctrines).
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Originally Posted by Sparrow
We say it is shared after the fact. Actually if there were several independent groups, they could have had very different experiences that were later merged, conflated or suppressed. Other posters have mentioned alien abductions. Abduction claimants stories are different in the details, yet they frequently band together to support each other’s claims for veracity. Alternately consider Near Death Experiences. Again the details vary yet the claimants will support each other, often omitting the conflicting details.
I find the idea of Christianity originating from the merger of several different groups with different origins and different doctrines implausible. The only example I can think of where a religion originated in this way is the Uniting Church in Australia (a merger of Presbyterians, Methodists, and Congregationalists), and I don't see the necessary analogy between the conditions of that merger and the conditions in which Christianity emerged.
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Originally Posted by Sparrow
Yes, a person, or possibly persons later conflated into one personage, would provide an explanation for the origin of the Christian movement. Yet there are still questions in this scenario as were listed above. I think the origin of the Christian movement can also be explained without there being an actual Christ, as Doherty has postulated. As I’ve said repeatedly, I lean toward the MJ position from the absence of contemporaneous evidence. I have not said the case is watertight. New evidence could change my opinion. Would you happen to have some?
Well, I don't yet see how the Christian movement could have originated without a flesh-and-blood founder (and no, this can't be Paul, unless it is explicitly contended that the movement did not exist before Paul). If I saw that alternative explanation I might change my mind. But I haven't seen it yet.
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Old 05-30-2006, 07:47 PM   #496
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
It is my understanding that "Messiah-seeking" was a common phenomenon of the 1st century and even before.
'Messiah-seeking' is one thing, and 'an existing group of Messiah-seekers' is another.
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ETA: I really don't understand your differentiation between "Christian ideas" and "Christianity-the-movement". They seemed wholly interconnected to me.
Not 'wholly'. See post #495.
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Old 05-30-2006, 11:28 PM   #497
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'Messiah-seeking' is one thing, and 'an existing group of Messiah-seekers' is another.
It is a collection of like-minded Messiah-seekers. I do not see why this is an unreasonable notion.
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Old 06-01-2006, 05:47 PM   #498
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In the introduction to his Lays of Ancient Rome, Macaulay discusses two medieval ‘Border Ballads’ about the Battle of Otterburn. One ballad tells of the Scottish commander (Douglas) being killed by a member of the English rank-and-file and the English commander (Percy) being killed by a member of the Scottish rank-and-file. The other tells of the two commanders meeting in single combat, with Percy killing Douglas but then being taken captive himself. According to the first ballad a Scottish knight called Sir Hugh Montgomery was killed, while according to the second he was captured. These ballads, according to Macaulay, were written not long after the period they refer to, probably while there were still people alive who remembered the events, yet they contradict each other. However, it would be wrong to conclude that either the battle or the individuals mentioned were fictitious: they were all historical, even though both ballads report them inaccurately. (The first ballad is right about the circumstances of Douglas’s death, but wrong about Percy’s death; the second is wrong about Douglas’s death, but right about Percy being captured. They are both wrong about Montgomery: he was neither killed nor captured in this battle.)

I hope the implications of this for the argument here are clear, but if not I shall elucidate further.
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Old 06-01-2006, 05:56 PM   #499
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Originally Posted by Didymus
I make the same (highly speculative) assumption, but I would nuance the process of propagation a little differently. It's certainly group think, but it might be going a shade far to call it mass hysteria.

As you suggest, mindset, receptivity and context had to have been present. But we needn't presume any dementation or irrationality on the part of subsequent believers. Equipped with only limited knowledge of the physical world, these rational people believed that the scripture they held in their hands, or heard from their teachers, was the living, infallible word of God. They believed that the prophets were God's messengers, and that those prophets accurately foretold certain events.

When the fulfillment of those prophesies - and perhaps others that were part of the oral tradition - was reported "first hand" by an authoritative source, an intelligent and pious man whom they greatly respected, what were they to think?

Didymus
But who was this man? Why did they respect him? What made him authoritative?
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Old 06-01-2006, 09:07 PM   #500
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. . .These ballads, according to Macaulay, were written not long after the period they refer to, probably while there were still people alive who remembered the events, yet they contradict each other. However, it would be wrong to conclude that either the battle or the individuals mentioned were fictitious: they were all historical, even though both ballads report them inaccurately. (The first ballad is right about the circumstances of Douglas’s death, but wrong about Percy’s death; the second is wrong about Douglas’s death, but right about Percy being captured. They are both wrong about Montgomery: he was neither killed nor captured in this battle.)

I hope the implications of this for the argument here are clear, but if not I shall elucidate further.
And what is the time period between the events and the recording of the ballads? Is it like the some 40 years between the alleged death of Jesus and the penning of GMark? How do you know the actual facts in the battle case? Do you have some contemporaneous external corroborating evidence? If you've got some evidence for Jesus written during the time of his life, please bring it out for us to marvel over.
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