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Old 05-31-2004, 05:54 AM   #141
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Originally Posted by ichabod crane
Can I just add one thing. Leaving aside the issue of "according to the flesh", which I can see we are never going to reach agreement on, how does the view that Vorkosigan et al. are maintaining deal with "descended from David" (Romans 1:3). How can one give the appearance from a worldly point of view of being descended from David?

This raises an important further issue. It seemed to me that Vorkosigan et al. were arguing for a conventional docetic view of Christ. That is, Christ appeared to be human but wasn't really. But in fact it seems that they are arguing for a more radical view, that Christ didn't appear in the earthly sphere at all. Otherwise, there would still be a "historical Christ", but it would be the history of an appearance, rather than the history of a human. Docetic Christology could still speak of a "historical Christ", but they maintained it was only an appearance.

So given this more radical understanding of Christ, how do you explain "descended from David", irrespective of the meaning of "according to the flesh"? How can Jesus appear to be descended from David "from a human point of view" or however you want to take it, if he never appeared in the earthly realm at all?
Ichabod, there is the Ebionite heresy that Jesus wasn't divine at all, and the Marcion heresy that Christ was physical but merely had the appearance of flesh. Have you ever heard of any early Christian heresy that had Jesus not existing on Earth at all?
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Old 05-31-2004, 05:55 AM   #142
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There's more there than that. What about "Though we once regarded Christ in this way, we do so no longer"

It seems that at one point the believers regarded Christ in a worldly way. But when? Before or after He died in the lower celestial realm? Before or after the first vision of the Risen Christ?
Perhaps he is implying, once we expected a fleshly, militaristic Messiah. Now we know the real Messiah is within.
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Old 05-31-2004, 05:57 AM   #143
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Good! We agree then.

There's more there than that. What about "Though we once regarded Christ in this way, we do so no longer"
What about it? Our previous point of view was a worldly one. Now it is not.

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It seems that at one point the believers regarded Christ in a worldly way. But when? Before or after He died in the lower celestial realm? Before or after the first vision of the Risen Christ?
How should I know? Paul does not give us that information, and his followers did not leave a paper trail. You can back read an HJ into his phraseology if you like, but there isn't one there if you read it without gospel presuppositions.

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Old 05-31-2004, 06:06 AM   #144
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Magdlyn, I haven't read Price. Can you give a quick summary of his argument on "descended from David"?

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You called them "dubious." That's not the same as proving anything.
I also gave an alternative interpretation which was straightforward.

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Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
Romans 8:5
For they that are according to flesh mind the things of the flesh; and they that are according to Spirit, the things of the Spirit.

Feel free, Ichabod, to show that when Paul is speaking here, he means:

For they that are according to meat that hangs on bones, mind the things of the meat that hangs on bones; and they that are according to Spirit, the things of the Spirit.
The preceding verse says "in order that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit". When he refers to those who are "according to the flesh", he quite clearly means those who WALK according to the flesh; Paul often omits the verb in a phrase when he has just used it immediately before. So all he is saying is that "those who walk according to the flesh mind the things of the flesh" i.e. those who follow fleshly desires mind the body and its desires, and look out for them, focussing on them. Similarly for the spirit. That wasn't so hard, then, was it?

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Frankly, I could not have, until this moment, ever imagined having a conversation in which the other party doubted that Paul ever used FLESH in a manner that was non-literal/figurative.
Welcome to my world!

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Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
Romans 8:6
For the mind of the flesh [is] death; but the mind of the Spirit life and peace.
Here is a better translation (the NASB) which renders it straightforwardly understandable on my view: "For the mind set on the flesh is death, but the mind set on the Spirit is life and peace".

And here's the NRSV just to back it up:

To set the mind on the flesh is death, but to set the mind on the Spirit is life and peace.


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Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
In fact, in Romans 8 Paul uses FLESH figuratively many times.
Funny, by my count the number of times is zero.

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Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
All of these usages reflect on the famous KATA SARKA passage in Romans 1. When Jesus comes "according to the flesh" what does it mean?
It means that he had a physical nature. Flesh (sarx) = soma (body) = physical nature.

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Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
That's not what Paul says, though. Paul says both happened with the child coming down the birth canal, but one was according to the flesh, the other, to the promise. And then he says the meaning is ALLEGORICAL.
Although we've said this many times and you don't seem to get it, Paul is using a CONCRETE, LITERAL example (being born according to the flesh, naturally, or being born according to the promise, miraculously), and he is then building an allegory on top of that. That doesn't make flesh non-literal, anymore than it makes Abraham or Hagar or Mt. Sinai non-literal.
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Old 05-31-2004, 06:13 AM   #145
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
Ichabod, there is the Ebionite heresy that Jesus wasn't divine at all, and the Marcion heresy that Christ was physical but merely had the appearance of flesh. Have you ever heard of any early Christian heresy that had Jesus not existing on Earth at all?
No, I haven't. But on Doherty's view, Paul apparently held to just such a perspective. It's an all-new interpretation of Paul. That doesn't mean it's wrong; but it shouldn't be confused with gnosticism or Marcion, because they weren't that radical.

By the way, "heresy" is a pejorative term and should probably be avoided
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Old 05-31-2004, 06:16 AM   #146
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How should I know? Paul does not give us that information, and his followers did not leave a paper trail. You can back read an HJ into his phraseology if you like, but there isn't one there if you read it without gospel presuppositions.
So, if we look at it from a HJ perspective, it fits. But if we look at it from a MJ perspective, we don't know what it means. Is that right? If not, then tell me what that passage means from a MJ perspective.
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Old 05-31-2004, 06:22 AM   #147
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Originally Posted by ichabod crane
No, I haven't. But on Doherty's view, Paul apparently held to just such a perspective. It's an all-new interpretation of Paul. That doesn't mean it's wrong; but it shouldn't be confused with gnosticism or Marcion, because they weren't that radical.
I agree. Doherty believes he has evidence that this view existed until late into the 2nd C CE. I think that the lack of attacks against such a view in Ireneaus and Tertullian is strong evidence to the contrary.

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By the way, "heresy" is a pejorative term and should probably be avoided
I was using it in its most positive sense!
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Old 05-31-2004, 06:38 AM   #148
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Originally Posted by Magdlyn
Perhaps he is implying, once we expected a fleshly, militaristic Messiah. Now we know the real Messiah is within.
I think it is close to that, except it is linked to Christ's death. The passage first has Christ dying then rising, then Paul saying that "we knew Christ according to the flesh, but no longer". It fits perfectly with Paul shifting the emphasis from a human Jesus to a divine Jesus.
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Old 05-31-2004, 07:17 AM   #149
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Hey guys,

I've really enjoyed this debate and I've learned a lot from you all. Unfortunately I'm going to have to bail now though as I'm coming up to exams next week and if I don't stop posting altogether, I know I'll just keep procrastinating by posting. I hope to rejoin you on the discussion boards after my exams are over.

In the meantime, all the best! It's really been fun for me; hope it has for you guys also. At the end of the day if we learn from each other, that's all that really matters.

A somewhat gnostic, somewhat Christian, somewhat various other things,
Ichabod.

P.S. Feel free to lay into anything I've said above! I just won't be able to reply.
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Old 05-31-2004, 07:48 AM   #150
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Magdlyn, I haven't read Price. Can you give a quick summary of his argument on "descended from David"?
He suggests, in the chapter Birth and Lineage, there was a tradition that the Messiah was not to be descended from David (Price is big on conflicting traditions that the gospels seek to harmonize).

He uses:
Mar 12:35 And as Jesus taught in the temple, he said, "How can the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David?
Mar 12:36 David himself, inspired by the holy spirit, declared, 'The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, till I put thy enemies under thy feet.'
Mar 12:37 David himself calls him Lord; so how is he his son?"...

And then Price goes on to list other "Messiahs" that were not Davidic. Judah Maccabee was descended from the Levites, for ex.

He lists the Testaments of the 12 Patriarchs as backup here. Reuben 2:28-"Draw near to Levi ...that you may recieve a blessing...he shall bless Israel and Judah because the Lord has chosen him for king over all the nations...he shall be an eternal king..." Price says other passages say the role shall be split between Judah and Levi.

Geza Vermes, Qumran authority, is quoted as saying this kind of "tinkering" was used for Simon Bar-Kochba as well.

There is more, but I have not the energy to quote it all! And Ichabod is gone anyway.

And with that, I am a User!
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