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Old 08-27-2009, 11:01 PM   #151
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Hi Folks,

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Originally Posted by Toto
And I don't think that disingenuous is the word that you want. Joe Wallack claims that Irenaeus was inaccurate. He gives examples of inaccuracies. You haven't shown where those charges were wrong..
Conceptually bankrupt.
Your opinions are of no consequence. You have not done anything to support this vacuous claim, as is par for your course. You simply insult anyone who disagrees with your dogma.

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Originally Posted by Steven Avery View Post
I showed that they were based on concepts that had no mileage till 1700+ years later. An argument by anachronism.
You don't seem to even understand the notion of anachronism. But you are attacking Joe for what you think is the same thing that you in fact argue with your hordes of late manuscripts.

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Originally Posted by Steven Avery View Post
I'm not going to prove every doofus multi-contradictory modernist theory wrong simply to point out that the Irenaeus statements about the NT authors and books are mainstream and standard for the whole early church period, as well as quite sensible.
Insulting the mainstream with a hotchpotch of incoherent and contradictory uses of ancient sources in order to bolster documents that are fundamentally late and unrepresentative of early traditions doesn't aid your vain quest for acceptability. You need real, not butterfly, logic and significant, not cherry-picked, evidence. Your attitude doesn't have any impact if you are merely spouting incoherent rubbish like a crazed old Russian anarchist outside the castle gate.


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Old 08-28-2009, 08:04 AM   #152
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Hi Folks,

Now I think it is important to return to the Alice in Wonderland aspects of this "debate". I asked Joe a few questions about his position on Mark's Gospel above and he simply ignored the questions, which were clearly relevant to this debate.
JW:
What I think about "Mark" in general is secondary regarding the question of whether the LE is original and here and with you is going to distract from the question.

I currently have two theories:

1) "Mark" is written primarily as entertainment c. 130. The irony in "Mark" that everyone, including Jesus, is subject to, supports "Mark" as entertainment as well as the sophisticated structure which relatively few authors would have been capable of at the time (probably Rome) and suggests an experienced playwright. The External evidence points to this time and it explains how subsequent authors that took "Mark" as historical had no access to historical witness (too late).

2) "Mark" is primarily theology written c. 90 by a Paulinist (when fake Paul is being manufactured) as Reaction to historical witness (Peter, James, El all). The discrediting of historical witness works better for the audience the closer it is to the historical witness. "Mark" is initially ignored by orthodox (historical) Christianity because it is seen as Gnostic. This coordinates with the orthodox identifying the first user of any Gospel as Marcion. Marcion was already using an edited version of "Mark" that exorcised the ties to the Jewish Bible before the orthodox retaliated with "Luke", an editing of Marcion's Gospel. This explains why the orthodox Gospels are so full of proof-texting from the Jewish Bible compared to "Mark". This is their reaction.

I currently favor 1). What I am sure about is that you and Vinnie have no idea who wrote "Mark". The idea that Peter was in any way behind a Gospel which represented his promotion of Jesus which explicitly shows him as a failure repeatedly in formulaic fashion and explicitly ends with no one, including Peter, even believing that Jesus was resurrected let alone that Peter ever promoted Jesus again, is ridiculous.

Quote:
Cutting to the chase we know the view of James Snapp, a bit strained but clear enough. The Gospel of Mark was circulated to the church as authentic in the 1st century, complete, with the long ending, the resurrection account.

Now James hurts his own cause, tremendously in my view, by waffling about whether the long ending is specifically written by Mark, or a compatriot, or something.
JW:
I already excerpted the relevant words for you which make clear that Snapp thinks Mark wrote LE but not as a part of the Gospel (this is what he has been reduced to).

Quote:
Since James does an effective job dismantling the supposed sytlistic and other arguments,
JW:
No he does not. He confesses that the Internal evidence demonstrates that the LE is not original to "Mark".

Quote:
and of course is a true expert on the early references to the ending,
JW:
As near as i can tell he is probably the foremost authority the world has ever known on this subject, early references. This is partly because his scholarship is good enough to recognize he has serious problems with the Manuscript evidence (unlike you).

He can find possible references but so far he has not been able to properly weigh them. I've introduced into the debate what appears to have heretofore been a foreign substance to him. Criteria to weigh these possible references. The lack of criteria allows him (in his mind) to dismiss evidence such as "Matthew"/"Luke"/"John" just because it is weak in some criteria and to keep some evidence such as "Justin" because it is strong mediocre in one category. Homily don't play that game. You have to use criteria to determine the relevant weight of all evidence.

Quote:
I have never understood why he waffles on this basic point.
JW:
Now you do (or at least should).

Quote:
The full position defending the authorship of the ending would be simply that the full Gospel is from Mark. I think it is safe to say that this is the position of Dean John Burgon, Professor Maurice Robinson, Edward Hllls, D. A. Waite and many others, although often the question does not really arise so you have to go with what is implied. The ending is authentic, Mark is the author. And that is my belief, simple and clean.
JW:
This doesn't mean much in the context of the debate. It explains why you are for LE but not whether LE is original. Snapp and I agree that Authority is the weakest category of evidence here. He has to because it goes against the LE. You don't seem to appreciate that it does you no good citing authority which agrees with you here because Authority as a category of evidence is against the LE (Ehrman, look out!).

Quote:
So what in the world is Joe supposedly debating with James ? Nobody has the faintest idea. Is he arguing that the resurrection account was written in the 4th century, that Irenaeus and 5-10 other church writers really don't mean much. Doubtful.
JW:
It is truly amazing that in a Thread titled " The Original Ending of "Mark". Debate - James Snapp, Jr. verses Joseph Wallack" which refers to a debate titled "Mark 16:9-20: Authentic or Not?" you have no idea what I'm debating with Snapp on.

You need to spend more time on the direct issues (evidence) and less on secondary issues.



Joseph

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Old 08-28-2009, 11:40 AM   #153
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Hi Folks,

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Originally Posted by JoeWallack
What I think about "Mark" in general is secondary regarding the question of whether the LE is original and here and with you is going to distract from the question.
Joe, "original" is not the debate. You and James Snapp both say it is not (James has it as a separate composition by Mark tacked on later, as we both know, so that is not really original, except in a very convoluted sense). Ototh, Maurice Robinson says it is, along with others. I strongly agree with Professor Robinson.

Quote:
Originally Posted by JoeWallack
I currently have two theories:
1) "Mark" is written primarily as entertainment c. 130.
2) "Mark" is primarily theology written c. 90
I currently favor 1).
Thank you, Joe that is a start, although it does not indicate authorship, another critical issue. More importantly, it does not date the ending.

Most of our disagreement beyond that is textually paradigmic so I read a lot your post and (snipped) it, as not too relevant. Also I am self-suspending posting, and the paradigmic stuff would not go anywhere.

Quote:
Originally Posted by JoeWallack
It is truly amazing that in a Thread titled " The Original Ending of "Mark". Debate - James Snapp, Jr. verses Joseph Wallack" which refers to a debate titled "Mark 16:9-20: Authentic or Not?" you have no idea what I'm debating with Snapp on.
You gave a partial answer above. However, e.g. in your 130 AD Mark composition (by someone not Mark for a book that is not scripture that did not go to churches) when would you have the long ending added ? That is what I asked. Try to answer that, if nothing else. And for the 90 AD alternative, again not Mark.

I appreciate that you gave a partial reply here, you can also read me on the thread with James, where we probe some of those issues in a neat environment. And he does take some flak.

Bye for now. I'll check your answer and if looks like it could use a smidgen further, then I will respond. Otherwise I wish you well, and I appreciate that you showed the glaring hole in the theory of James Snapp (while I consider much of your other stuff mishegas, normal textcrit fare confusion magnifed through an oddball humor mirror).

Try to answer the one question above, when you date the long ending that is not by Mark as after the main body of the book that is not by Mark -- also the date of the two redacted verses that are not by the people who were also not Mark.

Thanks.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 08-28-2009, 11:52 AM   #154
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What were his arguments? That Mark ends at 16:8 and so they must have been added later?

No, his argument is better than that. Here is a brief summary.

Ben.
That is a good argument. I'll buy that.

Mark 14
27 Then Jesus said to them, "All of you will have your faith shaken, for it is written: 'I will strike the shepherd, and the sheep will be dispersed.'
28 N/A
29 Peter said to him, "Even though all should have their faith shaken, mine will not be."
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Old 08-28-2009, 04:24 PM   #155
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Hi Folks,

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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
That is a good argument. I'll buy that.
Joe, please give a date for this redaction as well.

eg. In your first scenario .. are we talking say :

a) 130 AD - non-Mark written
b) 180 AD - 2 verses added in by new non-Mark redactors
c) 220 AD - last 12 verses added - 2nd group of non-Mark redactors

Or do you have b-c at the same time ? How many years did non-Mark circulate before non-Mark-resurrection-ending was added.

Were only those specific two verses added ? Did the 2 verses leave any trace in the manuscript lines like the afraid ending (AE) of non-Mark ? If not, Why not ?

Thanks for continuing to help with your textual theory.

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 08-29-2009, 04:35 PM   #156
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Default Jerome - repose in the wilderness near Bethlehem

Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Avery
Jerome was in Bethlehem when he wrote that epistle....,
Impugning an expert witness through your own advocatorial conjecture is an empty ruse the jury sees through and youtaint your case.
Jerome, Letter 120: To Hedibia (2009)
http://www.tertullian.org/fathers/je...ia_2_trans.htm

Although I have never had the honor of seeing your face, I know very well the reputation that you have gained in the world by your ardent faith. So, from far-off Gaul you have written to me, coming to seek me in my solitary repose in the wilderness near Bethlehem, so that I may respond to some little questions on Holy Scripture.

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 08-29-2009, 04:40 PM   #157
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Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Avery witticism
Afaik, he was never based in Greece although he might have stoped for some galaktoboureko en route to Bethelehem to go with the veggie pizza from Rome
Impugning an expert witness through your own advocatorial conjecture is an empty ruse the jury sees through and you taint your case.
Jerome, Letter 120: To Hedibia (2009)
http://www.tertullian.org/fathers/je...ia_2_trans.htm

Although I have never had the honor of seeing your face, I know very well the reputation that you have gained in the world by your ardent faith. So, from far-off Gaul you have written to me, coming to seek me in my solitary repose in the wilderness near Bethlehem, so that I may respond to some little questions on Holy Scripture.

Shalom,
Steven
Reading problem, Steven Avery, reading problem.

You merely want to cast aspersions on Jerome by claiming that he couldn't have known the gamut of Greek manuscripts because he'd never been spent time in Greece.


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Old 08-29-2009, 04:51 PM   #158
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Default the vast majority of manuscripts of Greece

Hi Folks,

Lest any readers be spun.

The citation was Bruce Metzger

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Avery
The wealth of citations, wide and strong in geography and languages, and the knowledge that the Vulgate includes the ending may be why Bruce Metzger warned not to read too much into the Jerome comment c. 400 AD

"Such disparities of proportion of evidence [in comparison with existing MSS] . . . may of course be due to the limitations of Jerome's knowledge"

Perspectives on the Ending of Mark: Four Views p.46 (2008) - citing
St Jerome's Explicity References to Variant Readings in Manuscripts of the New Testament - Metzger
spin's "writing comprehension" problem came to the fore.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Either the vast majority of manuscripts of Greece (in the late 4th c.)
spin calls Greek manuscripts the "manuscripts of Greece" .. very strange. Mt. Athos manuscripts are examples of manuscripts of Greece.

The rest went from there.

The translation on the net above has the language-sensible. :

"almost all the Greek codices lacking it"

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 08-29-2009, 05:17 PM   #159
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Originally Posted by Steven Avery View Post
Hi Folks,

Lest any readers be spun.

The citation was Bruce Metzger

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Avery
The wealth of citations, wide and strong in geography and languages, and the knowledge that the Vulgate includes the ending may be why Bruce Metzger warned not to read too much into the Jerome comment c. 400 AD

"Such disparities of proportion of evidence [in comparison with existing MSS] . . . may of course be due to the limitations of Jerome's knowledge"

Perspectives on the Ending of Mark: Four Views p.46 (2008) - citing
St Jerome's Explicity References to Variant Readings in Manuscripts of the New Testament - Metzger
spin's "writing comprehension" problem came to the fore.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Either the vast majority of manuscripts of Greece (in the late 4th c.)
spin calls Greek manuscripts the "manuscripts of Greece" .. very strange. Mt. Athos manuscripts are examples of manuscripts of Greece.

The rest went from there.

The translation on the net above has the language-sensible. :

"almost all the Greek codices lacking it"

Shalom,
Steven Avery
It's funny that Steven Avery who spent so much time treating Metzger like shite, insulting him, repudiating his work, is now pretending to be best buddies in order to impugn another source. Fickle are Steven Avery's allegiances. Sometimes he likes Jerome and at others he doesn't. Sometimes he likes Tertullian and sometimes he doesn't. We await the time when he takes the opportunity to use Hort to impugn someone else.




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Old 08-29-2009, 05:35 PM   #160
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Hi Folks,

Lest any readers be spun.

I was thinking of putting "stopped clock" Metzger. Since I was surprised that he put such a fair evaluation of Jerome's comment.

Now it is standard fare in discussions to point out where even those whom are normally an adversary grudgingly agree, and Metzger is close to hallowed to many textcrits. The question really is .. was his remark sensible ?

As for Jerome and Tertullian they are both extremely significant. Some of my Bible buddies paint Jerome improperly, imho. On the Tanach (OT) he was critical to unraveling the Greek OT error in the church. He had lots of solid writing and work.

As for Hort, yeah, sometimes he has some good quotes, but I have not seen much about other writers. His silence to the Dean John Burgon demolishing of his system was probably his most telling 'words'.

Shalom,
Steven
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