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Old 02-06-2008, 05:53 PM   #491
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arnoldo: please label your quotes. You lifted that from tektonics:

Defense of Daniel

The cite is from Archer, Gleason. A Survey of the Old Testament Introduction (or via: amazon.co.uk). Chicago: Moody Press, 1974
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Old 02-06-2008, 06:03 PM   #492
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Half the book is in Aramaic, starting from 2:4b, "O king..." to the end of ch.7. It's not that it is influenced by Aramaic: it's been translated into Aramaic.
Interestingly, the Aramaic that is used resembles the Aramaic used in 5 BC rather the Aramaic used in 2 BC.
Quote:
Archer [Arch.SOT, 397] asserts:
It was formally asserted that the Aramaic of Daniel is of the Western dialect and hence could not have been composed in Babylon, as would have been the case if the sixth-century Daniel was its real author. Recent discoveries of fifth-century Aramaic documents, however, have shown quite conclusively that Daniel was, like Ezra, written in a form of Imperial Aramaic, an official or literary dialect which had currency in all parts of the Near East. Thus the relationship to the Aramaic of the Elephantine Papyri from southern Egypt is a very close one, inasmuch as they too were written in the Imperial Aramaic.
Quoting from apologetic apes aping old time apologists is not very useful.

Try "L'aramaico biblico" in Aramaica, Rome 1993, pp.51-63, in which Giovanni Garbini explains the contrary, that there are several mistakes in the Aramaic, reflecting a much later translation from Hebrew by someone who didn't know Persian chancelry Aramaic well enough. Here's a translation of the final paragraph:
Personally, I have no doubts about the fact that Ezra was the model for the bilingualism in Daniel: but while the author of the first had access to original documents that could be more or less awkwardly imitated, the second seems to have been based principally on Ezra and on a few other examples of borrowing (as in the case of azda:'): it is sufficient to remember the impossible syntax and the laboured and repetitive style of the dream of the statue (2:37ff) to affirm that the Aramaic translator of Daniel, wanting to avoid writing in the language which he spoke, succeeded in giving a painful impression of his knowledge of Imperial Aramaic. The Aramaic of Ezra is a less than happy imitation of Achaemenid chancellery Aramaic; that of Daniel is merely an aping of it. It will always be worth the effort to study Biblical Aramaic, not for what it will indicate about the language but only to have an idea of "Aramaic philology" as practised in the Judaic context of the end of the second century BCE.

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Old 02-06-2008, 06:06 PM   #493
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Previous thread on the Aramaic question.

(To avoid rehashing old arguments.)
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Old 02-06-2008, 06:12 PM   #494
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Originally Posted by arnoldo
Here's another sources on the issue.

"The issue--was it written BEFORE the events or NOT?
Notice carefully that our task is much more simple than would first appear. We do NOT have to demonstrate that the Book of Daniel was written according to conservative theories--in the 6th century BC. ALL we have to do (in this first part) is to demonstrate that it was written BEFORE 167 BC! If the prophecies were uttered even ten years before the event, then they constitute 'prophecy proper'. Strictly speaking, all that is therefore necessary to do is to demonstrate that the material/content in the book of Daniel was in existence by the time of Antiochus IV Epiphanes. We don't even have to show that the book was in its current form at all-if we can even find references or close/obvious allusions to the images/languages in Daniel, we will have ante-dated the events, and hence, have encountered 'real' prophecy."
http://www.christian-thinktank.com/qwhendan3x.html
Are you saying that God wants everyone to believe that he can predict the future, or that he does not care whether or not people believe that he can predict the future?
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Old 02-06-2008, 06:16 PM   #495
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arnoldo: please label your quotes. You lifted that from tektonics:

Defense of Daniel

The cite is from Archer, Gleason. A Survey of the Old Testament Introduction (or via: amazon.co.uk). Chicago: Moody Press, 1974
Sorry, next time I will also put the author and the link to the source.

Apparently the book of daniel also has persian idioms.

The cite is from: Dismemberment in Dan 2:5 and 3:29 as an Old Persian Idiom, "To be Made into Parts" John Makujina
Journal of the American Oriental Society, Vol. 119, No. 2 (Apr. - Jun., 1999), pp. 309-312
doi:10.2307/606115

Persian Idioms
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Old 02-06-2008, 06:28 PM   #496
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Previous thread on the Aramaic question.

(To avoid rehashing old arguments.)
Thanks, I replied to the following post but didn't want to "bump" the post so I'm putting it here.

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At the time of the fall of Babylon, Nabonidus the king was in the city, a fact that Daniel was woefully unaware of. At least that's what the contemporary evidence tells us.
spin
Apparently the babylonian records indicate Nabonidus was not in the city, a fact that Daniel is 100% aware of
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Old 02-06-2008, 06:29 PM   #497
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Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
Apparently the book of daniel also has persian idioms.

The cite is from: Dismemberment in Dan 2:5 and 3:29 as an Old Persian Idiom, "To be Made into Parts" John Makujina
Journal of the American Oriental Society, Vol. 119, No. 2 (Apr. - Jun., 1999), pp. 309-312
Unfortunately Makujina merely shows the possibility of an old idiom in the text, which fits within Garbini's framework of a 2nd c. BCE attempt to reproduce Persian chancelry Aramaic.


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Old 02-06-2008, 07:17 PM   #498
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Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
Here's another sources on the issue.

"The issue--was it written BEFORE the events or NOT?
Notice carefully that our task is much more simple than would first appear. We do NOT have to demonstrate that the Book of Daniel was written according to conservative theories--in the 6th century BC. ALL we have to do (in this first part) is to demonstrate that it was written BEFORE 167 BC! If the prophecies were uttered even ten years before the event, then they constitute 'prophecy proper'. Strictly speaking, all that is therefore necessary to do is to demonstrate that the material/content in the book of Daniel was in existence by the time of Antiochus IV Epiphanes. We don't even have to show that the book was in its current form at all-if we can even find references or close/obvious allusions to the images/languages in Daniel, we will have ante-dated the events, and hence, have encountered 'real' prophecy."
http://www.christian-thinktank.com/qwhendan3x.html
Are you saying that God wants everyone to believe that he can predict the future, or that he does not care whether or not people believe that he can predict the future?
At the risk of going *off topic* however in response to your question God only cares about the jewish people in relation to the fullfilment of their destiny as a nation (not necessarily predicting the future). At the same time God cares about the gentiles also and that is why he has established his church (spreading the gospel is more important that trying to convince anyone that "God can predict the future".)
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Old 02-06-2008, 07:37 PM   #499
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
At the time of the fall of Babylon, Nabonidus the king was in the city, a fact that Daniel was woefully unaware of. At least that's what the contemporary evidence tells us.
Apparently the babylonian records indicate Nabonidus was not in the city, a fact that Daniel is 100% aware of


Memory failed you again that you have to go back to 2005? Here in this thread I asked you:
Do you accept that Nabonidus was in Babylonia at the time of its fall as indicated in the Chronicle of Nabonidus?
Note: Nabonidus was in Babylonia. This is in fact correct. Argue against current information rather than ignominiously ignoring it. You seem to have forgotten the following from here:
Nabonidus was indeed in Babylonia: he'd been back over a year. He had collected cultic statues for safekeeping in case of an invasion. He had performed the new year festival as only a king could. He was organizing resistance in Sippar at the time of the loss at Opis which opened way for the Persians to arrive at Babylon where the people gave the city to Ugbaru.
The errors of Daniel stand. Belshazzar was never a king. He was merely the viceroy for Nabonidus, no matter how much subterfuge you throw up.




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Old 02-06-2008, 07:39 PM   #500
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
Are you saying that God wants everyone to believe that he can predict the future, or that he does not care whether or not people believe that he can predict the future?
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
At the risk of going "off topic," however, in response to your question God only cares about the Jewish people in relation to the fulfillment of their destiny as a nation (not necessarily predicting the future). At the same time God cares about the gentiles also and that is why he has established his church (spreading the gospel is more important that trying to convince anyone that "God can predict the future".)
Regarding "God only cares about the Jewish people in relation to the fulfillment of their destiny as a nation, not necessarily predicting the future," your argument is not valid. You cannot credibly claim that Jewish history has proceeded according to God's plan without also claiming that the Bible predicted what will happen to Jews. Genesis 17:8 is a prediction, as are many other prophecies that mention Jews. If the Bible did not contain any prediction about Jews, you would not be discussing Jewish history.

Even if God is fulfilling Jewish history, what does that prove about God's character? Are you trying to establish a necessary correlation between power and good character?

Why are you so interested in Jews? The Bible makes lots of claims that do not have anything to do with Jews? What is God trying to accomplish? If he is trying to reveal his existence to people, he could have accomplished that thousands of years ago by making lots of indisputable prophecies. As it is, there is not one single indisputable prophecy in the Bible. Why is that? An indisputable prophecy would be a prediction when and where a natural disaster would occur. By "when," I mean month, day, and year. No one could credibly dispute a prophecy like that if it came true.

A God would not have any trouble at all convincing everyone that he exists. Otherwise, he would not be a God.

If you wish to discuss these issues at the GRD Forum, that would be fine. I recently started a thread at the GRD Forum that is titled 'Bible prophecy.' The link is http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=236335. For your convenience, I will now transfer the contents of this post to that thread.
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