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Old 06-10-2006, 05:58 AM   #661
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Originally Posted by Geetarmoore
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Originally Posted by GDon
What do you mean by "spiritual plane entity"?
Where does Paul know Jesus from? Earthly meetings, or spiritual 'visual' meetings?
Paul knows Jesus from a vision. How many spiritual plane entities can you name that are referred to as "born of a woman" and "seed of {someone}" without actually appearing on earth?

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Originally Posted by Geetarmoore
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Originally Posted by GDon
I think there is a lot more than that. "Born of a woman", "seed of David", from "the tribe of Judah" (in Hebrews). TedM had a good list at one stage. If you removed the Gospels from the equation, I think we would still get an idea of a Jesus who lived and died on earth.
Do you reject biblical scholarship that takes the book of Hebrews out of the Pauline epistles?
"Hebrews" is often used as evidence for an MJ. "The tribe of Judah" is from there. The rest are Paul's.

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Originally Posted by Geetarmoore
I think it's reasonable in all cases, if Paul's Jesus is in fact supposed to be the same as the Gospel version of Jesus.
No disagreement there.
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Old 06-10-2006, 06:07 AM   #662
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Originally Posted by Sparrow
As an aside, the phrase 'born of a woman' puzzles me. What options was the writer excluding by specifying that the messiah was 'born of a woman'?
Jesus was "born of a woman, born under the law" as the heir of Abraham, to contrast with gentiles who weren't "born of a woman, born under the law". But through Christ, the gentiles could receive the adoption as sons, and share in the inheritence of the promise to Abraham.
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Old 06-10-2006, 07:47 AM   #663
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Originally Posted by J-D
You still have a position where people switch from model A (incarnate Messiah) to model B (exclusively spiritual Messiah), and then back from model B to model A, and all reference to the first switch-over is purged from the record. Which I suppose may be possible, but does seem to ask for some sort of further explanation.
I have no idea where you got all this "switching" from what I've written. In the context of both MJ and HJ, it is more an evolution of a belief system than "switching" back and forth. The sacrificed and resurrected Messiah is given a historicizing "life story" which is, over time and a few rewrites, embraced as literally true and central to the faith of those who worship the sacrificed/resurrected Messiah. The only difference, IMO, is whether there was an actual guy or an idea of a guy at the beginning. Both conceptions of the religious movement start out focusing on what happened after he was dead. Both conceptions acquire a historicizing story about the central figure and both conceptions involve that story eventually being embraced as literally true and fundamental to the faith of the group.
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Old 06-10-2006, 08:39 PM   #664
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
We already talked about it: Jesus calling fishermen as disciples. There is a faint echo of the account of the calling of Elisha, but it isn't an obvious parallel the way that the 40-day temptation is a parallel to Israel's 40 days in the wilderness, and no attention is called to the parallel at all. The outline of the account of the fishermen isn't even that close to the account of the calling of Elisha except at one point. That is easily explained if whoever was creating the account wasn't trying to base it off of the account of Elisha, but was too familiar with the OT to avoid its influence.
Please explain how the loose parallelism is better accounted for by unintentionality than by the deliberate use of implied meaning.

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Who said anything about the oral tradition being accurate?
If they are largely inaccurate, the gospels are based either on an ahistorical Jesus or on a semihistorical, fragmentary, virtually mythical Jesus.

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How about this for a biography of a miracle-free Jesus? An apocalyptic preacher who started out under John the Baptist, starts his own ministry, and gathers some followers. He goes to Jerusalem on Passover, where it is crowded with Jews who are chafing at the irony of celebrating a holiday about God freeing them from a foreign oppressor while being ruled by those that they regard as foreign oppressors. In this charged environment, Jesus engages in some behavior that could potentially start a riot, and the Jewish authorities see this and, in their role as liasons between the Jewish populace and the Romans, inform Pilate, who takes care of Jesus with prejudice. Why you think such a Jesus would be a "nondescript individual," I don't know.
When you extract:

-- all the contextual filler and assumptions (...crowded with Jews who are chafing at the irony...)

-- the dubious suppositions and conjectures ("...engages in some behavior that could potentially start a riot," ...in their roles as liasons between the Jewish populace and the Romans)

-- the stuff about what others did (...the Jewish authorities see this...)

Here's what Jesus would look like:
  • A preacher who starts his own ministry and gathers some followers,then goes to Jerusalem where he is executed by Pilate.
Now do you know?

Why would such a stick figure attract marvelous tales of astonishing feats? A non-divine Jesus is no Jesus at all. It's hard to imagine folk tales being told about him, let alone his being revered as a god and redeemer of mankind.

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Old 06-11-2006, 06:45 AM   #665
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Originally Posted by Didymus
No, I didn't say that the ben Pandera legend was evidence that the Palestinian Jews didn't know who Jesus was supposed to be.

Read what I actually said:
Quote:
Not only did Palestinian Jews not accept his divinity, there's no evidence that they even knew who he was supposed to be! To the contrary, as we see in the ben Pandera legend about Jesus being the illegitimate son of a Roman soldier. That, among other things, suggests to me that neither the founders of Christianity nor the first Christians lived in Palestine.
Italics added.
Exactly. Italics added.When I originally read it I did not have the benefit of what you now indicate was your intended emphasis. My interpretation took note of phrase which you don't now emphasise: 'To the contrary'. You don't emphasise that now, but you said it. What could it mean? To me it meant that the the ben Pandera legend is the 'contrary' of evidence that Palestinian Jews knew 'who Jesus was supposed to be': in other words, it is evidence that they didn't. If that's not what you meant by the phrase 'to the contrary', what did you mean by it?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
I stand by what I said. There is a lack of evidence to support a) the commonly held Christian belief that first century Jews knew about the Jesus of the gospels and rejected him for theological reasons, and b) the belief that there was a thriving Jewish Christian community in Palestine at any time before the third century.
First, whenever it was that the ben Pandera legend first circulated in Palestine, it looks to me like possible evidence that by that time, if no later, the Jews who circulated it had some knowledge of the Gospel story. Second, if there was a Jewish Christian community in Palestine before the third century (I don't know what you mean by 'thriving'), then what evidence of it would you expect to find?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
Ominous reports about the heretical cult of Christians from their friends and relatives in the Diaspora.
In other words, the ben Pandera legend is evidence of knowledge of the Gospel story, just as I suggested, although not evidence of how that knowledge was acquired.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
That depends, not on whether he worked miracles or didn't, but on whether he was believed by Palestinian Jews to have have done so.

If no Palestinians regarded Jesus as divine, I wouldn't expect to find anything, regardless of whether the "real" Jesus was historical or mythical.
'Divine' and 'miracle working' are not the same thing, but never mind. If there was a Jesus whom a small number of Palestinian Jews believed to have worked miracles, but whom most Palestinian Jews did not believe to have worked miracles, what sort of archaeological, palaeographic, or epigraphic evidence would you expect to find?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
It's my contention that Palestinian Jews "rejected Jesus" because they didn't believe existed, let alone perform miracles. They had heard of no such person from their local compatriots, and had no reason to believe rumors from the Diaspora about such a messiah in their own backyard.
And I am canvassing the possibility that they 'rejected Jesus' because they didn't believe that he had performed miracles--or, that if he had, they were not divinely empowered miracles. I am not insisting that this is a better explanation for 'rejection' of Jesus, only that it is a possible one.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
It's my belief that first century Christianity was a cult of the Diaspora. It was created from afar by Greek-speaking messianic Jews who had only a scant knowledge of Palestinian geography and history and who used a Greek translation (the Septuagint) of the Torah as their primary source of information about their savior. Their audience consisted of other messianic Jews, God-fearers and Pagans, none of whom lived in Palestine. With the possible exception of Luke, none of the 2nd century church fathers were Jewish; by that time, it had become a wholly gentile religion.
That Christianity early became a Gentile religion is indisputable.
What do you mean, in this context, by 'messianic Jews', and who are the 'messianic Jews' of which you speak?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
Of course not! House churches were used until the Romans began to liberalize their policy toward Christians in the late third century.
Then why did you think it was relevant to refer to the absence of earlier churches in Palestine?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
The ben Pandera legend doesn't claim that Jesus was not a historical figure, and there's no attestation to that effect from 1st or 2nd century Jews. On the other hand, it certainly doesn't acknowledge the Jesus of the gospels as historical. And it does suggest ignorance of gospel beliefs.
I think disagreement with Gospel beliefs is at least as good an explanation.
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Old 06-11-2006, 08:56 AM   #666
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Originally Posted by Didymus
Please explain how the loose parallelism is better accounted for by unintentionality than by the deliberate use of implied meaning.
Because someone intentionally making a parallel would tend to make the parallel tighter, or insert an obvious textual cue. For example, the number forty makes clearer the connection between Jesus' purported days of temptation in the wilderness and Israel's years in the wilderness. If the account of the recruiting of the fishermen as disciples were a more intentional parallel with the calling of Elisha, one might expect to see, say, Jesus throwing his cloak or mantle at the fishermen.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
If they are largely inaccurate, the gospels are based either on an ahistorical Jesus or on a semihistorical, fragmentary, virtually mythical Jesus.
This is a gross shifting of the goalposts. A Jesus who was really a first-century crucified Galilean Jew from Nazareth is not what the MJers have in mind.

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Originally Posted by Didymus
Why would such a stick figure attract marvelous tales of astonishing feats?
Let's see now. Credulous disciples follow someone who has some personal charisma. He does "miracles" via the placebo effect. They, like the fans of Sylvia Brown or John Edward, remember the hits and forget or explain away the misses. Now he gets killed. His followers could go home and admit that they wasted their lives and acted embarassingly on behalf of someone who wasn't all that he said he was, or they can engage in wishful thinking (i.e. the resurrection) and find a way to believe that it wasn't all a waste. The Jesus that they then preach is Jesus as they remembered him--but their memory is distorted by what they want to believe. The Jesus that they preach further attracts stories of astonishing feats.

None of the irrationality that I described above is particularly atypical for those in cults or millenial movements.
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Old 06-11-2006, 10:32 AM   #667
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Originally Posted by J-D
If there was a Jesus whom a small number of Palestinian Jews believed to have worked miracles, but whom most Palestinian Jews did not believe to have worked miracles, what sort of archaeological, palaeographic, or epigraphic evidence would you expect to find?
I thought I answered that question before. Just in case you missed it:

Authentic ossuaries with Christian markings (like those discovered near the Mount of Olives, except the markings would be verified as Christian, not just believed to be Christian by the faithful), Christian codices or fragments of codices such as were found in Egypt, plaques with incriptions marking holy places, lamps or talismans with Christian markings, chalices and other liturgical items, and so on. This list is probably a little too exhaustive, but you get the idea.

Quote:
And I am canvassing the possibility that they 'rejected Jesus' because they didn't believe that he had performed miracles--or, that if he had, they were not divinely empowered miracles.
The question is, of course, why didn't they believe that he had performed miracles? Surely they, and their parents and grandparents, were in the best position to know whether he did or didn't do all those things. Christians think all that doesn't matter, that Jews rejected his divinity out of their own hardheartedness, etc.

Quote:
I am not insisting that this is a better explanation for 'rejection' of Jesus, only that it is a possible one.
I agree. But I think it is more likely that they didn't know who the heck the Christians were talking about. Nowhere, of course, is there any early Jewish literature that says, in so many words, "We remember that guy, but he didn't do all that stuff."

Once again, though, we mythicists must resort to arguments from silence, as must be the case, of course, when one is trying to disprove a claim.

[QUOTE]That Christianity early became a Gentile religion is indisputable.
What do you mean, in this context, by 'messianic Jews', and who are the 'messianic Jews' of which you speak?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus
Of course not! House churches were used until the Romans began to liberalize their policy toward Christians in the late third century.
Quote:
Then why did you think it was relevant to refer to the absence of earlier churches in Palestine? I think disagreement with Gospel beliefs is at least as good an explanation.
It is the earliest archeological evidence of Christian activity in Palestine. In making the point that there was no earlier evidence, should I have mentioned something later, like the Church of the Holy Sepulcher? Or a crusader castle? :huh:

Messianism was a major factor in Judaism at the turn of the era. Judaism had been repeatedly subjected to foreign domination, first by the Greeks, then by the Romans. There was a wave of hope that a savior would appear who would restore Israel to its former glory. Jewish messianism still exists; the Lubavitchers believe that Rebbe Menachem Mendel Schneerson, the now-desceased rabbi of a synagogue in Queens, N.Y., is/was the long hoped-for messiah.

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Old 06-11-2006, 11:36 AM   #668
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Originally Posted by Didymus
Messianism was a major factor in Judaism at the turn of the era. Judaism had been repeatedly subjected to foreign domination, first by the Greeks, then by the Romans. There was a wave of hope that a savior would appear who would restore Israel to its former glory. Jewish messianism still exists; the Lubavitchers believe that Rebbe Menachem Mendel Schneerson, the now-desceased rabbi of a synagogue in Queens, N.Y., is/was the long hoped-for messiah.
Are you sure Schneerson isn't just a myth, invented by neo-Platonicians and given a veneer of Judaic messianism?
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Old 06-14-2006, 12:36 AM   #669
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Originally Posted by driver8
It would appear to me that there is actually evidence for the opposite:

http://cc.usu.edu/~fath6/Nazarenes.htm



I find it interesting that if the "King of the Jews" had already manifested himself, there would remain such a protracted search for the messiah. Perhaps the word just didn't get around.
I find two interesting aspects to the material at the link that driver8 posted, both the material driver8 quoted directly and the rest.

Firstly, we have there a list of people attested from records of the time, or not long after, each of whom either: claimed to be the Messiah; or, acted as if he thought he was the Messiah; or, was believed by his followers to be the Messiah; or, attracted followers who behaved as if they though he was the Messiah. So, clearly, in first-century Palestine the putative Messiah was not a unique phenomenon. I can see two possible lines the argument could go from there. One is to say that putative Messiahs attracted attention and got written about, so the ones who are written about would be all the ones there are and we can disregard the possibility that there were others who left no contemporary or near-contemporary record. The other is to say that if there were a number who got written about, the chances are that there were numbers more who didn’t get into the records, or of whom the contemporary or near-contemporary records have been lost. I favour the second point of view, and that seems to me to add to the plausibility of the idea of a historical Jesus as a putative Messiah.

Secondly, the material driver8 didn’t quote discussed the Nazarenes and the Ebionites. It seems to me that the existence of these sects is easier to explain on the hypothesis of a historical Jesus. They would represent the lineal succession from the earliest followers of Jesus, adhering more closely to the original doctrines of the group, before the distorting influence of Paul and possibly others. I don’t see how their existence can be easily explained under the Jesus Myth hypothesis.
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Old 06-14-2006, 01:25 AM   #670
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Originally Posted by Clivedurdle
Sir Richard Burton, when in the depths of Somalia in the 1850's, heard of a ship disaster in Bombay within a few days.
Interesting.
Do you have any details?
Or a cite?

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