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Old 04-04-2012, 03:38 PM   #41
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The “Son of Man”, is deliberately ambiguous. In Aramaic of the time (as Bar Nasha) and in literary Hebrew (Ben Adam) it could just mean “the one under discussion” or “the person”. As an allusion to Daniel 11, it meant a heavenly figure who acts to bring the will of God to earth. Period. There is no other explanation.
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Old 04-04-2012, 03:45 PM   #42
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On the Son of Man as a heavenly being see Clement of Alexandria's citation of his gospel:

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"But I say unto you, Whosoever shall confess in Me before men, the Son of man also shall confess before the angels of God; but whosoever shall deny Me before men, him will I deny before the angels. Whosoever shall be ashamed of Me or of My words in this adulterous and sinful generation, of him shall the Son of man also be ashamed when He cometh in the glory of His Father with His angels. Whosoever therefore shall confess in Me before men, him will I also confess before my Father in heaven. " (Strom 4.9)
I don't understand how you can be so obtuse. Clearly the Son of Man is a heavenly figure in Daniel 11, Mark's citation of that chapter in his gospel and here. I sometimes think these position people on the historical Jesus border on a new faith - a neo-evangelic faith even for atheists.
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Old 04-04-2012, 03:50 PM   #43
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I went through ALL the references to the concept of 'Son of Man' in Clement's Stromata. They all support the idea he was a divine figure. Look here in book one:

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The Athenian Solon most excellently enlarges, and writes: "Look to the tongue, and to the words of the glozing man, But you look on no work that has been done; But each one of you walks in the steps of a fox, And in all of you is an empty mind." This, I think, is signified by the utterance of the Saviour, "The foxes have holes, but the Son of man hath not where to lay His head." For on the believer alone, who is separated entirely from the rest, who by the Scripture are called wild beasts, rests the head of the universe, the kind and gentle Word
When is this going to be settled for you? The most ancient interpretation of the terminology contradicts your assumptions.
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Old 04-04-2012, 03:56 PM   #44
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Perhaps this will make it clearer:

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They (the Basildeans) proudly say that they are imitating the Lord who neither married nor had any possession in this world, boasting that. they understand the gospel better than anyone else. The Scripture says to them: "God resists the proud but gives grace to the humble." Further, they do not know the reason why the Lord did not marry .In the first place he had his own bride, the Church; and in the next place he was no ordinary man that he should also be in need of some helpmeet after the flesh. Nor was it necessary for him to beget children since he abides eternally and was born the only Son of God. It is the Lord himself who says: "That which God has joined together, let no man put asunder." And again: "As it was in the days of Noah, they were marrying, and giving in marriage, building and planting, and as it was in the days of Lot, so shall be the coming of the Son of man." And to show that he is not referring to the heathen he adds: "When the Son of man is come, shall he find faith on the earth?" And again: "Woe to those who are with child and are giving suck in those days," a saying, I admit, to be understood allegorically. The reason why he did not determine "the times which the Father has appointed by his own power" was that the world might continue from generation to generation.
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Old 04-04-2012, 04:00 PM   #45
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Notice the variant in Clement's Instructor Book Two:

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"For the Son of man," He says, "came, and they say, Behold a glutton and a wine-bibber, a friend of publicans."
with Luke 7:34:

Quote:
The Son of Man, on the other hand, feasts and drinks, and you say, 'He's a glutton and a drunkard, and a friend of tax collectors and other sinners!'
What is missing? The fact that a phantom doesn't eat and drink.

And that is all the references to 'Son of Man' and 'Son of God' in the twelve surviving books of Clement of Alexandria.
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Old 04-04-2012, 04:04 PM   #46
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I have to go but the point is that we can never prove what was or wasn't true outside of the literary intentions of the original gospel writer. But as it stands all evidence points to Mark in his original gospel preserved originally in Alexandria and now lost - a kind of meta-gospel which featured stories which are now found in Matthew, Luke and John - the literary intention was to show Jesus as a God.
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Old 04-04-2012, 04:13 PM   #47
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Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
Son of God does not mean Messiah principally. It means the God under god
What is your basis for this claim? It has no such use in the Hebrew Bible or any other Jewish writing that I'm aware of.
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Old 04-04-2012, 04:23 PM   #48
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Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
Diogenes where are u getting son of man = messiah. Its every day sense in Aramaic would be 'person under discussion`
I didn't say "son of man" = "messiah." I said "son of God" = messiah.

Mark uses "son of man" as an allusion to the Messiah by way of Daniel, and there is clearly a sayings tradition of Jesus using the phrase, but Mark didn't necessarily understand it the same way (or misunderstood it) as it was originally intended by the original author of the sayings. I think it's plausible, for instance, that the sayings may have originally only referred to people (e.g. "The sabbath was made for the son of man, the son of man is the lord of the sabbath,") and misunderstood it as a titular word for the Messiah, or it could have even been a coded word for the Messiah by some group. I read once that some groups, especially revolutionary groups, used OT references as an esoteric code.

In any case, neither "son of man," or "son of God" ever denoted either personal divinity or literal divine descendancy. Those were (and are) both theologically impossible ideas for Judaism.
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Old 04-04-2012, 04:47 PM   #49
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what Clement thought "son of man" meant has no bearing on what Mark thought it meant, and even less on what the pre-Markan author (or authors) thought it meant.

I think it should be emphasized that the extant literary corpus of early Christianity was constructed (aside from Paul) by people who did not know anybody from the original movement, or have any access to what they truly believed. Everything we're told about the original apostles (well almost everything) comes from later Gentile sources who never met any disciples.

Paul claims to have met a few of them, and tells us that they still follow Jewish law (which tells us ipso facto that they did not think Jesus was a redeemer of sins), but really nothing else.

So you have an original movement in Jerusalem (ostensibly having started in Galilee), then you have an idiosyncratic missionary going out to Gentiles and preaching a message he claims he got mostly from the voices in his head, the destruction of Jerusalem and loss of the original movement there, and then a bunnch of Greek converts trying to recover a historical Jesus from the pages of a Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible.

The mythicists are right that the narratives of the Gospels were mostly fabricated by making pictures from clouds in Hebrew scripture, and tossing in some pagan boilerplate mystery cult stuff, but the evidence is still strong that some original, unlucky bastard really got crucified and remained fixated on, for some reason, by religious followers after his death.

I might even argue that the Canonical Gospels are the real "first quest." .

Luke, for instance, was essentially a "scholar" (in the context of his era) researching sources and compiling his own "definitive history. That is what the author himself claims to be doing, and in fact, that is what he does a decent job at. He makes things up, of course, but he knows how to anchor his musings to some kind of quasi-historical event or source (like linking his Nativity to the census of Quirinius, for instance).
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Old 04-04-2012, 05:22 PM   #50
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The problem is we do not know what the metaphors were in general usage when the gosples were written.

Today bad can mean good sick can mean awesome depending on context. If you try to inteprret using a literal dictionary it will be a mystery.

What was Hebrew colloquial for a dumb shit 2000 years ago? I doubt anyone knows. What was the Yiddish of the day? Add to thyat goiung from tyhe Jeoish based stories to the gospels by writers not Jewish and removed fom the events in time. You get what we have as the NT. Not a literary work, put a popular work intended for Christians not Jews selling the ressurection. Jews missed tge boat.

The flood mytrh can be traced form its origins as it is adopted by succesive cultures adapted for different cultures.

For us non believers Judaism is based on a myth, and for me Chritianity is a modifcation and adaptation of the Jewish myths for a nob Jewish culture. From that perspective in the context of known human history, the rise of Christianity based on Jewish lore should not be mystifying.

That us why per the NT Chistianity should be called Jewish Paulism. Acording to his writings, he modified Jewish tradtiion for the greater gentile population. Jesus in the NT appeared to keep kosher so to speak.
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