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#11 | |
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#12 | |
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Firstly, the verb is M$X -- there's no YOD in it. The YOD makes it a noun, as in "messiah". Secondly, the verb means "to smear, anoint". Note that "smear"? It makes the Greek verb xriw a perfect translation. Thirdly, the verb M$X is a cognate of the Arabic m$x and I bet you can't guess what that means! Yup, "smear, anoint". Palmyrean M$X) means "oil", as the Hebrew M$XH means "ointment". Pesh. Mk 6:13 They anointed with oil, M$XYN HWW BM$X). --o0o-- Dear moderators. How about if we add a rule to this forum, that if someone wants to mke linguistic arguments, they need to show that they know something about linguistics? It gets tiresome to come across indications that a writer simply hasn't done the homework. Is a quick trip to www.etymonline.com a sufficient substitute for linguistic knowledge? Ahh, no. spin |
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#13 |
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Spin, you should visit the Koko gets a toothache thread on Evolution vs Creation, from page 10 on, to see what linguistic ignorance is.
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#14 | |
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spin |
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#16 | |
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Ah, an excellent site that discuss Christos, Messiach and Moshiya...
http://users.tpg.com.au/kapteyn/messiah.htm Quote:
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#17 | |
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I don't get the point, Christian works aren't written in Hebrew, so who cares. how does this help your etymology of Christos? This guy says " We find this in Isaiah 45:1 There Yahweh says: limshiycho ligoresh. This is usually translated as: to my anointed to Cyrus (Cores).However, it should have been translated as; to my deliverer to Cyrus." Unfortunatly the Greek for Isaiah 45:1 has the word christos. There is no basis for translating the Hebrew as deliverer, it's pure drivel and the guy doesn't know Hebrew from a hole in the wall. Besides the obvious incompetence in Hebrew, wouldn't this be a problem since Isaiah has already just stated that no one but God is your deliverer. |
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#18 | |
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#19 | ||
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I guess the reason why he's interested in the verb "yasha" Y$( is because it is the root of Jesus. Quote:
spin |
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#20 | |
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