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View Poll Results: What Does An Anachronistic Crucifixion of Jesus Demonstrate? | |||
That "Mark" is Certainly 2nd Century | 1 | 11.11% | |
That "Mark" is Almost Certainly 2nd Century | 1 | 11.11% | |
That "Mark" is More Likely Than Not 2nd Century | 0 | 0% | |
Why FRDB Thinks "Mark" is 2nd Century | 2 | 22.22% | |
Whatever spin says it does | 3 | 33.33% | |
That JW is the foremost authority on the dating of "Mark" or thinks he is | 2 | 22.22% | |
Voters: 9. You may not vote on this poll |
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05-03-2012, 08:29 AM | #11 |
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Mark is irrelevant. I am not arguing that a single word of Mark has to be historical. I am saying there's nothing implausible about the Tacitus summary.
There's also nothing implausible about somebody being crucified for causing a disturbance at the Temple. Arguing that something is merely plausible is not the same thing as arguing it must be historical. The threat against the Temple is also independently attested in Thomas, by the way, so it isn't just Mark. |
05-03-2012, 05:01 PM | #12 | ||||
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05-03-2012, 11:31 PM | #13 | |
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It also means that such anachronisms could have been even later, such as the 3rd century or later. You could be responsible an avalanche of needless questions. Is it not PC to let sleeping dogma lie? |
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05-03-2012, 11:33 PM | #14 |
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05-04-2012, 12:06 AM | #15 |
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Thomas
"Scholars generally fall into one of two main camps: an "early camp" favoring a date for the "core" of between the years 50 and 100, before or approximately contemporary with the composition of the canonical gospels and a "late camp" favoring a date in the 2nd century, after composition of the canonical gospels. The vast majority of mainstream scholars fall in to the "late" camp[32][33]"[My emphasis] |
05-04-2012, 02:43 AM | #16 |
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Upon what are these scholars estimating the date?
Attestation to The Gospel of Thomas in antiquity (1) Eusebius cites Hippolytus (155-235), Refutation of all Heresies, v. 1-6., as mentioning something similar to the received text, (2) and cites Origen as mentioning some text of Thomas. (3) Eusebius cites saying (No. 2 in the gThomas) as quoted by Clement of Alexandria (Miscellenies ii. 45. 5; v. 96.3), as coming from the Gospel according to the Hebrews. Have I missed anything out? |
05-04-2012, 08:00 AM | #17 | |||
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Hi arnoldo
The execution of Judas the Galilean's sons James and Simon, apparently happened around the time of the great famine in Judea -- 44 C.E., when Tiberius Alexander was procurator. Since the tax rebellion of Judas started around the time of Cyrenius, 6 C.E., we can assume that the sons of Judas the Galilean were involved with a rebellion that had been going on for some 38 years. Judas the Galilean was associated with "The Fourth Philosophy" which Josephus blames for the outbreak of the war in 66 C.E.. While the execution of well known felons and enemies of Rome like the sons of Judas the Galilean makes sense, the execution of persons unknown to a procurator like Jesus of Nazareth does not make sense. Tens of thousands of people visited Jerusalem during the Passover ceremony. many groups, like the Samaritans and the Essenes, wanted to shut down the Temple business. The Galileans led by Judas apparently wanted to make "innovations". It made sense for the Romans to have armed guards to keep the peace at these times. Warmly, Jay Raskin Quote:
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05-04-2012, 09:35 AM | #18 | |
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The excerpt from Josephus regarding the crucifixion of Judas' sons is here: CHAPTER 5. CONCERNING THEUDAS AND THE SONS OF JUDAS THE GALILEAN; AS ALSO WHAT CALAMITY FELL UPON THE JEWS ON THE DAY OF THE PASSOVER. Quote:
The general observation is that the Romans considered crucifixion the ultimate punishment and reserved it for forceful political resistance against them. The above specific excerpt is consistent with the general observation. The implication from Josephus is that the sons are crucified because they are connected with armed resistance to Rome's authority to collect taxes in Israel. Also note the example above of the creator of disturbance in the Temple who is not crucified as punishment. As previously noted, we have no evidence of any Jews being crucified in Israel, except for Jesus and two bandits (Brown missed this), prior to the 40s. Per Josephus, the armed resistance gets going in the 40s and continues to the Temple destruction c. 70. This is the period when Josephus records crucifixion as the standard (so to speak) punishment for threatening Roman rule. Another possible anachronism to add, the bandits with Jesus getting crucified. This also looks like a post 30s thing. This observation coordinates with Paul's letters. No letters exist from the 30s or 40s. Starting in the 50s he has letters which gradually claim a crucified Jesus. This parallels with the progression of crucifixions in Paul's time. My supporting observation to doubt the historical claim of Jesus' crucifixion is that the key witnesses can not give a likely reason for it. The most important witness, Paul, does not give any reason for it. Maybe because there wasn't any. The other witness "Mark" gives a reason but it is unlikely. "Mark" narrates that "The Jews" threatened to riot unless Pilate crucified Jesus. This contains the following unlikeliness: 1) Unlikely that the Jews placed in power by the Romans would have threatened to lead a riotI've demonstrated Ad Nazorean that "Mark" parallels well with Greek Tragedy. Aristotle explains to us that a key of Greek Tragedy is to try and make it plausible so the audience can think "that could happen". This is why "Mark" always provides supposed reasons. Not necessarily likely, just possible. This makes good fiction but bad history. In an effort to defend against my point, DtC mines "Mark" for a reason, any reason, why it is completely plausible that Jesus was crucified, and invokes the Temple Tantrum. "Mark's" related narrative than has its own quite unlikely information like it being physically impossible for Jesus and no one interrupting Jesus. Comically (ironically) this legitimate reason to find Jesus guilty at his trial is long forgotten a few days later. Is there any way though by exorcising all the impossible and unlikely accompanying baggage that we can be minimalists and only compare a reason, any reason for Jesus' crucifixion to likelihood? If Jesus did create a disturbance in the Temple that would not make crucifixion likely. Execution maybe, based on the extent, but not crucifixion. How much would we have to add to "Mark's" Temple Tantrum to make crucifixion likely? What we would have to add is Rome as a target. But this goes against all of "Mark". Joseph ErrancyWiki |
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05-05-2012, 06:35 AM | #19 | ||
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Gunnar Samuelsson has stated this before: Quote:
Gunnar Samuelsson's site: http://www.exegetics.org/ Interview of Samuelsson in Germany: Eine Krux mit dem Kreuz Conclusion: gMark MUST have been written after 94 CE. |
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05-05-2012, 07:14 AM | #20 | ||
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2 Greek ἔκτεινε. It could be translated "put to the full stretch" like in gJohn 21:18 but not as is used here in the present active infinitive. Still, Josephus' verb choice might be hinting at some kind of crucifixion, perhaps on a decussate cross. |
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