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Old 05-01-2012, 03:57 PM   #41
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...... "James the brother of the Lord" was being used to differentiate the James that Paul met from any other apostle named James. If all sect members were "brothers of the Lord," then this hasn't named anyone specific. It requires there to be a differentiation between "James the brother of the Lord" and other apostles, which your definition fails at...
Please, tell us of YOUR HJ??? Was he LORD?? Was he the Lord Jesus Christ or just a preacher??

Your HJ was LORD during the reign of Aretas??? He was a preacher man???

If he was a preacher man then he is NOT the LORD Jesus Christ in Galatians 1.19 that was raised from the dead.

Nobody wrote about YOUR UNKNOWN preacher.

Your preacher man did nothing, said nothing and was nothing.

The source for the LORD JESUS CHRIST cannot be the same source for a mere preacher man.

Galatians 1.19 is about the resurrected LORD JESUS CHRIST.


Jesus was CHRIST in the Canon was the Son of God and had a Name ABOVE every name in the Roman Empire and was WELL-KNOWN in the region about Galille and Judea and SAVIOR of ALL MANKIND by the crucifixion and Resurrection.

Every knee Must bow to the name of the LORD Jesus Christ in the Canon.

There is NO preacher man named Jesus Christ in the Canon. There is NO historical Jesus in the Canon.

There is a QUEST right now for an historical Jesus because NT Jesus is NON-historical.

Your HJ WAS not LORD during the reign of Tiberius

Your HJ was NOT known as Christ during of Tiberius.

Your HJ was NOT known as a Savior during the reign of Tiberius.

Please, nobody wrote about a preacher man who could NOT save any one, could NOT heal anyone, could NOT raise the dead and could NOT resurrect.

Your preacher man is NOT the LORD Jesus Christ in Galatians unless we are dealing with a case of stolen/Mistaken Identity.
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Old 05-01-2012, 04:15 PM   #42
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I thought Galatians 1:19 was supposed to be the definitive knock-out punch to mythicism? Early manuscripts don't exist, but since all of our fourth century or later manuscripts say "brother of the Lord," then we can say with "some assurance" that it was there in the original manuscripts (which don't exist).

Brilliant logic there Ehrman. You can't have it both ways.
P46 normally dated c 200 CE has Galatians 1:19 with the reference to the Lord's brother.

Andrew Criddle
Are there any extant patristic commentaries on, or citations of Galatians from the 2nd century, other than Tertullian and the brief mentions in Ireneaus and possibly Polycarp, that you are aware of? Perhaps a citation of 1:19 itself?
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Old 05-01-2012, 04:15 PM   #43
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First Apocaypse of James
"It is the Lord who spoke with me: "See now the completion of my redemption. I have given you a sign of these things, James, my brother. For not without reason have I called you my brother, although you are not my brother materially. And I am not ignorant concerning you; so that when I give you a sign - know and hear."


What does James represent? Definitely not a sibling to Jesus.
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Old 05-01-2012, 04:40 PM   #44
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This is not the same thing as saying all of the extant text should therefore be presumed to be forged.
So Bart can provide 'some assurance' that we can know the original text, despite his claim that we just don't have the manuscripts to let us do that?
We can have some assurance that the text we have in this case is uninterpolated, yes.
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Old 05-01-2012, 04:44 PM   #45
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First Apocaypse of James
"It is the Lord who spoke with me: "See now the completion of my redemption. I have given you a sign of these things, James, my brother. For not without reason have I called you my brother, although you are not my brother materially. And I am not ignorant concerning you; so that when I give you a sign - know and hear."


What does James represent? Definitely not a sibling to Jesus.
You're talking about a 3rd Century text, so discomfort with Jesus having siblings is already established. The fact that it feels like it has to explain what "brother" means is basically proof that people thought it meant "brother."
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Old 05-01-2012, 05:06 PM   #46
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....and proof that even back then there were other people who thought otherwise.

Question; 'If Mickey's a mouse, Donald's a duck, and Pluto's a dog...What's Goofy?'

Answer; This debate.

Nothings changed

Actually, Goofy has more substance and 'history' than this debated imaginary storybook character.


ETA. Did some further research, and just like with 'ol 'James', the moniker 'Goofy' is a latter applied name change.
And goofy stories never cease. Someone is busy with cooking up another right now.

Who was 'Goofy's' father?
Who was his mother?
Did he have brothers and sisters?
Did he have a brother that was a famous magician?
It never ends.



.
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Old 05-01-2012, 05:39 PM   #47
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First Apocaypse of James
"It is the Lord who spoke with me: "See now the completion of my redemption. I have given you a sign of these things, James, my brother. For not without reason have I called you my brother, although you are not my brother materially. And I am not ignorant concerning you; so that when I give you a sign - know and hear."


What does James represent? Definitely not a sibling to Jesus.
You're talking about a 3rd Century text, so discomfort with Jesus having siblings is already established. The fact that it feels like it has to explain what "brother" means is basically proof that people thought it meant "brother."

Where in the text do you get that idea? Who was uncomfortable with jesus
having siblings?
http://www.gnosis.org/naghamm/1ja.html
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Old 05-01-2012, 05:40 PM   #48
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You're talking about a 3rd Century text, so discomfort with Jesus having siblings is already established. The fact that it feels like it has to explain what "brother" means is basically proof that people thought it meant "brother."
Well, well!!! You PRESUME the Pauline writings are 1st century when you very well know that the Pauline writings, P 46, have been dated to the mid 2nd-3rd century.

The Pauline writings may very well be 3RD century text and written AFTER the Apocalypse of James.

It is mind boggling how you PRESUME you know when the Pauline writings were composed when you have NOT one shred of corroboration at all.
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Old 05-01-2012, 05:56 PM   #49
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic View Post
You're talking about a 3rd Century text, so discomfort with Jesus having siblings is already established. The fact that it feels like it has to explain what "brother" means is basically proof that people thought it meant "brother."

Where in the text do you get that idea? Who was uncomfortable with jesus
having siblings?
http://www.gnosis.org/naghamm/1ja.html
The discomfort is demonstrated ipso facto by the fact that the author felt the need to contrive a phony explanation for why James was known as the brother of Jesus.
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Old 05-01-2012, 06:11 PM   #50
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Originally Posted by jdboy View Post
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic View Post
You're talking about a 3rd Century text, so discomfort with Jesus having siblings is already established. The fact that it feels like it has to explain what "brother" means is basically proof that people thought it meant "brother."

Where in the text do you get that idea? Who was uncomfortable with jesus
having siblings?
http://www.gnosis.org/naghamm/1ja.html
The discomfort is demonstrated ipso facto by the fact that the author felt the need to contrive a phony explanation for why James was known as the brother of Jesus.
How did you determine this text is a phony explanation? And who is uncomfortable with jesus having siblings?
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