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Old 07-30-2012, 04:35 AM   #11
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This is not the way to get attention.
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The source is the Bible.
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This symbolises the complete acceptance of blame for all sins by Jesus; so he became 'Satan', and thereby achieved atonement. The Numbers incident is analogy of justification; that by having faith that Jesus 'became sin' on one's behalf, one's sins are forgiven, and one is justified by that faith.
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The enmity in Genesis is that between Satan (as snake) and the woman, and in particular, her offspring, Jesus, whose heel was to be bitten by the snake. (Note that the snake attacked from low down, and from behind; by extension, in a cowardly way.) The enmity in Ephesians is that between God and mankind, that atonement dissolved.
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A priest offers sacrifices because, for him, there is no atonement.
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'God raised us up with Christ and seated us with him in the heavenly realms in Christ Jesus.' Eph 2:6 NIV
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A priest behaves as though the head of the serpent has not been crushed, because he and his followers perpetually make sacrifices in order to be 'seated' with Christ. A priest therefore finds Ephesians 2 anathema. If his followers were 'seated' he would have no role!
Bold words indeed! Do you have any sources refuting my critique of the interpretation of Genesis 2 and 3 in the OP?
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Old 07-31-2012, 03:31 PM   #12
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Related thought: if God's judgment was that man should work the land why was he so disappointed when Cain offered him the fruits of such labour?
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Old 07-31-2012, 06:02 PM   #13
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Related thought: if God's judgment was that man should work the land why was he so disappointed when Cain offered him the fruits of such labour?
it wasnt gods judgement


ancient Israelites wrote that god favored meat sacrifices over agriculture.


this allegory, has roots that go back to differences between nomadic herders VS the evil of city life associated with the development of agriculture.

almost like Lotts fable
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Old 08-01-2012, 05:11 AM   #14
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Bold words indeed! Do you have any sources refuting my critique of the interpretation of Genesis 2 and 3 in the OP?
I'm in total agreement with your OP statement

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Doesn't the plain word interpretation of Genesis 2 and 3 seem to favour the Jewish rather than Christian outlook?
Allow me to make a bold corollary - there is no Christian interpretation of anything in the Old Testament that is superior to the Jewish interpretation.

Perhaps an exception is when Yoshke told the Pharisees to lighten up a little bit, but that was before Christianity started.
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Old 08-01-2012, 05:45 AM   #15
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there is no Christian interpretation of anything in the Old Testament that is superior to the Jewish interpretation.
Surely, if they are not the same (and surely, they should be), one of them must be actually defective, if significantly different. Or are there two (or more) discrete, independent, valid intentions of the deity?

Let us suppose, as may seem sensible, that the deity of Genesis had only one intention. There is an interpretation of Gen 2 and 3 in post #3. Now is it Jewish, Christian, or both? It claims exegesis 'according to Genesis, and the rest of the Bible'; iow, that it is hermeneutic. Now the deliberate intention was that 'the Bible' could refer to either the Hebrew canon, or the Graeco-Hebrew canon. Now it is of course acknowledged that 'Jews' and 'Christians' disagree about the identity of Jesus of Nazareth. But can there be discerned any point of necessary disagreement between these parties in this interpretation of Gen 2 and 3? I rather think that there cannot.
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Old 08-01-2012, 07:56 AM   #16
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there is no Christian interpretation of anything in the Old Testament that is superior to the Jewish interpretation.
Surely, if they are not the same (and surely, they should be), one of them must be actually defective, if significantly different. Or are there two (or more) discrete, independent, valid intentions of the deity?

Let us suppose, as may seem sensible, that the deity of Genesis had only one intention. There is an interpretation of Gen 2 and 3 in post #3. Now is it Jewish, Christian, or both? It claims exegesis 'according to Genesis, and the rest of the Bible'; iow, that it is hermeneutic. Now the deliberate intention was that 'the Bible' could refer to either the Hebrew canon, or the Graeco-Hebrew canon. Now it is of course acknowledged that 'Jews' and 'Christians' disagree about the identity of Jesus of Nazareth. But can there be discerned any point of necessary disagreement between these parties in this interpretation of Gen 2 and 3? I rather think that there cannot.
I was thinking of examples like Isaiah 7:14 where some Christians claim that almah means virgin as in Yoshke's mom, in addition to probably all the other Yoshke prophecies.

Re. the actual verses under discussion

These are two different stories, that probably don't mean shit.

Once you start with exegesis, it's easy to leave the actual meaning of the text behind - it's not like what you are saying is wrong.

Judaism’s Rejection Of Original Sin

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Saint Augustine (354-430) was the first theologian to teach that man is born into this world in a state of sin. The basis of his belief is from the Bible (Genesis 3:17-19) where Adam is described as having disobeyed G-d by eating the forbidden fruit of the tree of knowledge in the Garden of Eden. This, the first sin of man, became known as original sin.
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The doctrine of original sin is totally unacceptable to Jews (as it is to Christian sects such as Baptists and Assemblies of G-d). Jews believe that man enters the world free of sin, with a soul that is pure and innocent and untainted. While there were some Jewish teachers in Talmudic times who believed that death was a punishment brought upon mankind on account of Adam's sin, the dominant view by far was that man sins because he is not a perfect being, and not, as Christianity teaches, because he is inherently sinful.
If we contrast these two views, the Jewish opinion is consistent with the concept that the story doesn't mean shit. If nothing else, this is simple and therefore superior to the other view.
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Old 08-01-2012, 08:15 AM   #17
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one of them must be actually defective, if significantly different. Or are there two (or more) discrete, independent, valid intentions of the deity?
both defective

both invalid



christians jack it up reading literally

jews believe the exodus and moses, jacked I tell you lol
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Old 08-01-2012, 08:21 AM   #18
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there is no Christian interpretation of anything in the Old Testament that is superior to the Jewish interpretation.
Surely, if they are not the same (and surely, they should be), one of them must be actually defective, if significantly different. Or are there two (or more) discrete, independent, valid intentions of the deity?

Let us suppose, as may seem sensible, that the deity of Genesis had only one intention. There is an interpretation of Gen 2 and 3 in post #3. Now is it Jewish, Christian, or both? It claims exegesis 'according to Genesis, and the rest of the Bible'; iow, that it is hermeneutic. Now the deliberate intention was that 'the Bible' could refer to either the Hebrew canon, or the Graeco-Hebrew canon. Now it is of course acknowledged that 'Jews' and 'Christians' disagree about the identity of Jesus of Nazareth. But can there be discerned any point of necessary disagreement between these parties in this interpretation of Gen 2 and 3? I rather think that there cannot.
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I was thinking of examples like Isaiah 7:14 where some Christians claim that almah means virgin as in Yoshke's mom, in addition to probably all the other Yoshke prophecies.
Off topic (and completely misleading).

We may now suppose that the best that Judaism can do is oppose only obviously pseudo-Christian dogma, and that the premise of this question:

Doesn't the plain word interpretation of Genesis 2 and 3 seem to favour the Jewish rather than Christian outlook?

is entirely unfounded.
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Old 08-01-2012, 08:37 AM   #19
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is entirely unfounded.
exactly


someone is reading way to much into allegory, that is a compilation of early collections centuries a part and redacted so much the original authors wouldnt recognize it
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Old 08-03-2012, 05:32 PM   #20
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Off topic (and completely misleading).

We may now suppose that the best that Judaism can do is oppose only obviously pseudo-Christian dogma, and that the premise of this question:

Doesn't the plain word interpretation of Genesis 2 and 3 seem to favour the Jewish rather than Christian outlook?

is entirely unfounded.
What is the basis for this supposition? Jews wrote the pentateuch and were reading it and interpreting it long before Xians. A plain reading of the Eden narrative favours the Jewish position.
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