FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 10-19-2012, 09:27 AM   #51
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2008
Location: Copenhagen, Denmark
Posts: 322
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Cesc View Post
...You can't say that "in gJohn Jesus is seen as God, but not so in gMark," because it's alot more complicated than that. In gJohn Jesus is not God as such, but what then is he?...
Your assertion is absolutely erroneous and is completely unacceptable.

In gJohn, Jesus is introduced as the Word that was God from the very first verse.
I would say that Jesus is the flesh in which the Word became incarnated.
Obviously there is a difference in gJohn between the "son" and the "father," even though they "are one." So, it's complicated. You could say that Jesus is one aspect of God, or one manifestation if you will.

Quote:
In gJohn, Jesus was God from the very beginning.

John 1.1
Quote:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and [i][b]the Word was God.
In the beginning was the λογος, not Jesus. Is the πνευμα (the spirit) the carrier of the λογος? It is in stoicism I've been told, so it would make sense here as well. At a particular point in history according to gJohn the πνευμα came down upon Jesus and "remained" there, or "stayed" there (ἔμεινεν John 1:32.) So does it leave him again? Does he pass it on to the disciples? It would seem so.
Furthermore, it can be argued that the best translation of John 1:1 is "... and the λογος was divine."

Quote:
Jesus was the Only begotten Son of God in gJohn.

John 3.16
Quote:
For God so loved the world that he gave his ONLY begotten Son...
John 10.17
Quote:
Therefore doth My Father love me because I lay down my life that I might take it again.
Yes, Jesus is the God's son, but they're also one? It's complicated.

Quote:
Your assertion ... is completely unacceptable.
I'm sorry!
Cesc is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 11:40 AM   #52
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2012
Location: South Pacific
Posts: 559
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Cesc View Post
In the beginning was the λογος, not Jesus. Is the πνευμα (the spirit) the carrier of the λογος? It is in stoicism I've been told, so it would make sense here as well.

At a particular point, in [the] history [of the development of Christianity] according to gJohn the πνευμα came down upon Jesus and "remained" there, or "stayed" there (ἔμεινεν John 1:32.) So does [the narrative say] it leave[s] him again? Does he [allegedly] pass it on to the disciples? It would seem so.

Furthermore, it can be argued that the best translation of John 1:1 is "... and the λογος was divine."

Yes, Jesus is [was said to be] the God's son, but they're also one? It's complicated.
With the interpolations I have added, one can understand how the myth-stories developed.


But 'literalisms' such as this -
Quote:
I would say that Jesus is the flesh in which the Word became incarnated.
imply truth to the narratives.

"that Jesus is the flesh in which the Word became incarnated" is an illogical statement: it contains a category error or errors - flesh is not 'word', and "incarnated" is an unrealistic proposition. "incarnated" is a hypostatisation fallacy.


The religion gives nonsensical propositions such as this -
Quote:
Obviously there is a difference [COLOR="rgb(105, 105, 105)"]in gJohn[/COLOR] between the "son" and the "father," even though they "are one." So, it's complicated. You could say that Jesus is one aspect of God, or one manifestation if you will.
MrMacSon is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 12:05 PM   #53
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2008
Location: Copenhagen, Denmark
Posts: 322
Default

Are you saying I should be more careful and remember to add "according to gJohn", or have you misunderstood and think I'm arguing from a Christian point of view?
Cesc is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 12:29 PM   #54
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2012
Location: South Pacific
Posts: 559
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Cesc View Post
Are you saying I should be more careful and remember to add "according to gJohn", or have you misunderstood and think I'm arguing from a Christian point of view?
You had put in the "according to gJohn". I faded it to diminish the authority you seemed to give gJohn.

Yes, you seemed to be arguing from a Christian point of view.
MrMacSon is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 01:04 PM   #55
Banned
 
Join Date: Sep 2011
Location: middle east
Posts: 829
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley
In Mark, Jesus, when before the high priest, could have just as easily said "Yes, I am the Christ".
Thank you David.

Yes, the author(s) of Mark could have written many things differently.

We call that version, Matthew, or Luke.

ἐγώ εἰμι means, simply, I am. Nothing else. To emphasize that Mark does NOT intend that the reader infer some sort of divine stature, he goes on to write, in Mark 14:62
υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου

Isn't that interesting?

Not, θεὸς, but ἀνθρώπου

WHY???? Because, Jesus was NOT God, as in the gospel of John. He was the son of man, in Mark. Not logos. Not YHWH. Not present from the very beginning of time. Arius lives!!!!

Long live Arius!!

tanya is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 01:11 PM   #56
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Location: USA
Posts: 4,095
Default

The fact is that after the introductory passage in GJohn, the idea of the Logos becoming flesh is never pursued further in the context of the story. For Jesus to simply say "My father and I are one" means nothing, since it never expresses anything described in the introductory passage. Which is why I am thinking about it being a later interpolation.

The idea of being one with "his" father does NOT imply the doctrine of the incarnation of the logos, and could signify other things.

There is a statement in the Talmud that God, the Torah and Jews are "One." And this has nothing to do with the idea of the Logos.
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Cesc View Post
...You can't say that "in gJohn Jesus is seen as God, but not so in gMark," because it's alot more complicated than that. In gJohn Jesus is not God as such, but what then is he?...
Your assertion is absolutely erroneous and is completely unacceptable.

In gJohn, Jesus is introduced as the Word that was God from the very first verse.

In gJohn, Jesus was God from the very beginning.

John 1.1

Jesus was the Only begotten Son of God in gJohn.

John 3.16

John 10.17

Again, the Johanine Jesus and God was ONE.

John 10:30


This is an excerpt of the final prayer of the Johanine Jesus.

John 17:1
Quote:
These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said , Father, the hour is come ; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee..
The Johanine Jesus was God the Creator who later became Flesh--God Incarnate.

The Jesus character was Son of God in the Entire NT Canon without a human father.
Duvduv is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 04:22 PM   #57
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Cesc View Post
[
I would say that Jesus is the flesh in which the Word became incarnated.
Obviously there is a difference in gJohn between the "son" and the "father," even though they "are one." So, it's complicated. You could say that Jesus is one aspect of God, or one manifestation if you will...
It is gJohn that matters. What you say is NOT found in gJohn.

In gJohn, Jesus was BEFORE anything was created. You cannot say whatever you like.

In gJohn, the author says Jesus, the Logos, was God and later the Logos was made Flesh.

In the NT, Jesus Created Adam. Jesus was from the beginning.

In the NT, Jesus was God Incarnate NOT man deified.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
In gJohn, Jesus was God from the very beginning.

John 1.1
Quote:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and [i][b]the Word was God.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Cesc
In the beginning was the λογος, not Jesus. Is the πνευμα (the spirit) the carrier of the λογος? It is in stoicism I've been told, so it would make sense here as well. At a particular point in history according to gJohn the πνευμα came down upon Jesus and "remained" there, or "stayed" there (ἔμεινεν John 1:32.) So does it leave him again? Does he pass it on to the disciples? It would seem so.
Furthermore, it can be argued that the best translation of John 1:1 is "... and the λογος was divine."
No, No, No!!! What you say is NOT in gJohn.

The author did NOT say how Jesus the Logos was made Flesh.

Again, the Logos in gJohn is Jesus.

It is NOT complicated at all.

gJohn is simply Mythology.

Jesus the Logos is philosophical NOT historical.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 05:50 PM   #58
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2012
Location: South Pacific
Posts: 559
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by tanya View Post
.
... Because, Jesus was NOT God, as in the gospel of John. He was the son of man, in Mark. Not logos. Not YHWH.
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
.
... In gJohn, Jesus was BEFORE anything was created. ...

In gJohn, the author says Jesus, the Logos, was God and later the Logos was made Flesh.

In the NT, Jesus Created Adam. Jesus was from the beginning.

In the NT, Jesus was God Incarnate NOT man deified.

...

[in gJohn] the author did NOT say how Jesus the Logos was made Flesh.

Again, the Logos in gJohn is Jesus.

...

gJohn is simply Mythology.

Jesus the Logos is philosophical, NOT historical.
So, the contrast from the 3 synoptics to gJohn reflects adding 'flesh' to the story?
MrMacSon is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 06:52 PM   #59
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2007
Location: Mondcivitan Republic
Posts: 2,550
Default

tanya,

I wasn't saying Jesus was claiming to be God, but only meant to show why some think Jesus had freely spoke the divine name, a name that almost all Jews refused to utter on superstitious grounds. The only exception was uttered by the High Priest on the Day of Atonement. Hence the significance of the High Priest in Jesus' trial.

Matthew doesn't appear to have picked up on this, and Luke uses it in a discussion Jesus has with a crowd of Pharisees, scribes and chief priests, although it is phrased as if he was speaking to the High Priest. "You say that 'I AM' (too)"

In the Epistle of Barnabas Jesus is described as the scapegoat in the ritual performed by the High Priest on the Day of Atonement (Chapter 7).

The Tolodoth Jeschu has Jesus doing miracles using the power of the divine name (Shem). See G R S Mead's Did Jesus Live 100 BC? (which is online and can be downloaded from Internet Archive.

The Shem story in the Toledoth traditions concludes with Jesus being hung on a giant vegetable stalk because he had used the Shem to cast a spell so that he could not be hung from a tree, and then buried in a vegetable garden, is alluded to by Tertullian (De Spect, xxx.).
This He whom His disciples have stolen away secretly, that it may be said He has risen, or the gardener abstracted that his lettuces might not be damaged by the crowds of visitors.
DCH

Quote:
Originally Posted by tanya View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by DCHindley
In Mark, Jesus, when before the high priest, could have just as easily said "Yes, I am the Christ".
Thank you David.

Yes, the author(s) of Mark could have written many things differently.

We call that version, Matthew, or Luke.

ἐγώ εἰμι means, simply, I am. Nothing else. To emphasize that Mark does NOT intend that the reader infer some sort of divine stature, he goes on to write, in Mark 14:62
υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου

Isn't that interesting?

Not, θεὸς, but ἀνθρώπου

WHY???? Because, Jesus was NOT God, as in the gospel of John. He was the son of man, in Mark. Not logos. Not YHWH. Not present from the very beginning of time. Arius lives!!!!

Long live Arius!!

DCHindley is offline  
Old 10-19-2012, 07:09 PM   #60
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874

gJohn is simply Mythology.

Jesus the Logos is philosophical, NOT historical.
Quote:
Originally Posted by MrMacSon View Post
So, the contrast from the 3 synoptics to gJohn reflects adding 'flesh' to the story?
Actually there are FOUR Canonised Synoptic type Gospels--the short gMark, the Long gMark, gMatthew and gLuke.

It apears that the author of the Long gMark used virtually all of the Short gMark and added 12 verses.

In effect, the Short gMark Jesus is the Long gMark Jesus except that Jesus visited the disciples After the resurrection.

No history is added in the Long gMark--No Flesh is added---it is the complete reverse--Mark 9-20 added a Resurrection.

The same applies to gMatthew. This author again appears to use virtually all of the short gMark but added No Flesh to Jesus--No history.

The author of gMatthew claimed Jesus was born of a Holy Ghost.

gMatthew's Jesus was NOT of the seed of Flesh---but the seed of a Spirit.

The author of gMatthew ADDED more Myth--Not history.

In gLuke, it is the same thing--Jesus was the product of an overshadowing Ghost.

The author of gLuke added even more mythology to the short gMark Jesus story.

Now, finally, the author of gJohn stated Jesus was the Logos.

gMark's Jesus was NOT actually made Flesh in all the Canonised Gospels.

gMark's Jesus was multiple Attested to be of the Spirit by gMatthew, gLuke and gJohn--Jesus was not historical-- but completely philosophical--completely theological--a Myth.

The Johanine Jesus, the Logos and God the Creator, was NOT from the Jews.

The Johanine Jesus would be Utter Blasphemy in the ancient Jewish community.
aa5874 is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 12:13 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.