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02-22-2011, 01:46 PM | #61 | ||
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Luke 24:40 When he had said this, he showed them his hands and his feet. Luke 24:41 And while they still could not believe it (because of their joy) and were amazed, he said to them, "Do you have anything here to eat?" Luke 24:42 So they gave him a piece of broiled fish, Luke 24:43 and he took it and ate it in front of them. Rom 1:3 concerning his Son who was a descendant of David with reference to the flesh, Rom 3:25 God publicly displayed him at his death as the mercy seat accessible through faith. This was to demonstrate his righteousness, because God in his forbearance had passed over the sins previously committed. Rom 5:15 ...the gift by the grace of the one man Jesus Christ multiply to the many! |
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02-22-2011, 02:22 PM | #62 | |||
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Gal 1:19 goes according to Detering as part of a larger interpolation, a catholicizing interpolation that brings Paul safely under the wing of orthodoxy, yet why would orthodoxy call Peter "Cephas", when there is no qualm about using "Peter" in 2:7-8 (which is clearly a catholicizing interpolation)? Quote:
Our problem is the assimilation of the Greek use of κυριος for the savior so that it came to apply to Jesus. This renders several passages in Paul which use κυριος opaque because the reader doesn't really know who it refers to, though with the later church comes to accept the κυριος = Jesus formula and changes the meaning of the text. I work on a simple idea that Paul being a hellenized Jew would have maintain the distinction found in LXX Ps 110:1 "the lord says to my lord" (non-titular vs titular κυριος). The LXX translator had no problem with the distinction, a distinction Paul must have inherited. But would Paul have confused his reader using κυριος to refer to Jesus as well as god?? It's not Paul's use of κυριος in Gal 1:19 that allows the reader to assume Jesus. It is the confusion brought about by the change in terminology that does. |
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02-22-2011, 02:42 PM | #63 | |
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In at least one place you dont think is an interplotation (from what you've said on the matter previously). Now this doesn't prove that galatians 1:19 must refer to Jesus, but it makes your comment above, "It is the confusion brought about by the change in terminology that does." wrong and misleading. The reader could , possibly, see jesus there on the basis (partly at least), that elsewhere Paul uses κυριος ot refer to Jesus. Seriously, where are you going to go with this (other than an internet forum), until you deal with that? |
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02-22-2011, 03:14 PM | #64 | |||
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I can just sit here watching you chase your tail trying hard to find fault in what you haven't shown you understand. |
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02-22-2011, 03:25 PM | #65 | |
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You know where it is, so im not going to waste my time if its only for you. If someone esle chimes in, I might take the time to go and find it. Otherwise ive got more important things to do. |
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02-22-2011, 04:59 PM | #66 | ||
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02-22-2011, 05:11 PM | #67 | |
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Being quite used to your games I decided not to play. Sorry, you'll have to find someone esle I have better things to do.:devil1: |
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02-22-2011, 06:02 PM | #68 | |||||
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It's an interesting idea, and I'm going trough the epistles as I write this, looking for some instances where it's clear to whom the non-titular lord refers to. I've noticed 1cor 6:14 (which you seem to think is an interpolation). Quote:
But as I say, I'm going through the epistle now, looking for lords. Maybe you're absolutely correct. Do you have a list of non-titular lords that you think clearly refer to god and not Jesus? That would be helpful. |
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02-22-2011, 06:03 PM | #69 | ||
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You've had plenty of time to catch up on the topic. But, every time, you seem to start from scratch. Ever seen Memento? Pot looking for kettle... We've heard that from you before. It usually comes when you find yourself in your own poo. Nobody forced you to talk. Enjoy. :wave: |
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02-22-2011, 06:06 PM | #70 |
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spin, what do you think of the lord in 1Cor 6:17?
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