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03-14-2008, 02:23 AM | #11 | |
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03-14-2008, 07:59 AM | #12 | |||||||||||||||||||
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Conversely, there were texts forged by Eusebius in the 4th century which are no longer extant. But generally speaking, what you call my criterion is what I call the implications of the Eusebian fiction postulate: Eusebius lied about christian origins, and tendered legions of fictitious authors and their texts as part of the fabrication (of the Galilaeans -- according to Julian's phraseology). Quote:
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I call the Eusebian fiction postulate so because it is more than a claim. It is the foundation of a theory in ancient history summarised as "Constantine invented christianity". It is far more than a claim because I have personally examined and investigated scores and scored of archaeological citations (epigraphic and papyrii, etc) which appear to be at variance with the hypothesis. We may have discussed this evidentiary aspect before. Otherwise, an index is here Quote:
Constantine commanded the empire in the north, west, south and east. Besides, the pagan ascetic academics (not christians!) who wrote the apocryphal gospels, such as Thomas, Judas, etc complexified the picture by their sedition against the canon. Quote:
and that 4 eyewitness accounts will always vary by about 80%. If the accounts are four copies of one original, someone would look stupid. The Boss was not stupid. He was the Pontifex Maximus: the head of the council of pontiffs from all religious cults in Rome. He wanted to fabricate as much authenticity as possible, as is the modus operandi of all good forgers, and enactors of fraudulent misrepresentation. Quote:
Pious fraud is trash. Fraudulent misrepresentation is trash. This is a crime investigation, it is not textual criticism. The field is ancient history; I am explicating the origins of christianity as the political emergence of a top-down-emperor cult in the fourth century; sponsored by imperial fraud. The subject matter of the fraud is incidental to me. Quote:
When you analyse these you will find approximately 600 odd atomic events and/or sayings shared in some cases by all 4, or 3 or 2 or 1 holy moly apostles of fiction. Eusebius claims to have developed these tables as a ready-reckoner quick-reference and look-up cross reference, about who said what, and who else also said what. My point is that the Eusebian canon tables could have been constructed in the first instance, and the allocation of what each of the four authors was going to say, calculated in advance by authorship of the details in the control canon tables. Each author just gets the set of sayings and events decided in advance by the project coordinator, who keeps the management of the gospels in the canon tables. It may not have happened that way. I am just giving you a 'for instance'. Quote:
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Eusebius forged all works by the authors in CATEGORY ONE. These are essentially all christians mentioned by Eusebius in his works who died between the first century and the council of Nicaea. The authors in CATEGORY TWO have no idea christianity ever existed. They are pagans who lived sometime in the first three centuries and who died before Nicaea. The authors in other categories wrote and died after Nicaea. Does this explain the analysis? Eusebius is responsible for fabricating all his sources found in Ecclesiastical History and In Preparation for the Bullshit. Heggesipus, Tertullian and Justin Martyr are Eusebius. Origen's NT texts are Eusebius. (Origen's OT texts are Origen). Porphyry and Celsus "Against the Dingbats" is Eusebius. (Constantine order Eusebius to forge Porphyry, so that the Boss could stand up and wave the writings around in the air, and then condemn the writings of Porphyry. It was all politically expedient at the time. Constantine also probably sponsored the bulk of the Historia Augusta, and probably tried to pass it off as the profane side of history in parallel to Eusebius newly invented historiography. Quote:
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03-14-2008, 08:33 AM | #13 | |
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Let me be specific about what I mean. What fact, not in serious dispute among qualified historians, is inconsistent with a denial of your postulate? |
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03-14-2008, 09:29 AM | #14 | |
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A short observation about this.
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The essential premise being that the corpus of "Christian" literature, its "history", and its claims, were all forged in the 4th century under the demand and direction of Emperor Constantine. If this was accomplished in an "Eusebian scriptorium" as Mountainman has previously termed it, that would imply only that Eusebius had oversight of a group of writers, not that he himself would have need be the one penning every word, they would have been be set to task under Imperial order to crank out volumes of religious texts, to be edited and adapted by Eusebius, subjected to final approval by Boss Constantine. And, if the name "Eusebius" was revealed to be no more than a nom de plume used by other writer(s) in a 4th century forgery mill to perpetrate a fraud, that would in no manner discredit "The Eusebian Postulate", No, rather it would only establish all the more firmly the truth that such forgery did take place. |
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03-14-2008, 12:22 PM | #15 | |
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I switched to using the RSV a while back specifically because of these issues, but I still have NIV texts that would be too difficult to transition my embedded notes. |
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03-14-2008, 04:44 PM | #16 | ||
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However if you mean what evidence have I tendered in support of the postulate, which is available to all historians, then I have a list of citations from the fourth century on which evidence the notion that people thought the new testament literature was to be associated with fiction: * the words of Arius * the convictions of Emperor Julian * the observations of Nestorius. * the nature of the Origenist Controversy. * the nature of 4th/5th century "heresies" * the nature of 4th/5th century "anathemas" * the Apocrypha as a seditious polemical reaction to Bullneck's Canon. See: www.mountainman.com.au/essenes Best wishes, Pete Brown |
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03-14-2008, 04:50 PM | #17 | ||
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Thanks for your support Sheshbazzar. It's been pretty much all the way uphill these last few years, with a few notable exceptions here and there. Best wishes, Pete Brown |
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03-14-2008, 11:10 PM | #18 | ||
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There is no such thing as direct translations. The translator uses a source language Lexicon, and possibly some grammar rules, to determine the words and structure of the original text, usually in a non-native language. Then he decides what it means in view of his biases. Then he writes what he thinks it means in his own language. The lexicons and grammar rules are based on the biases of the person who developed the lexicon and the grammar rules. They are mostly based in the Septuagint even though that was probably corrupted by Jerome. None of the ones used for Bible Translation are based on extra-biblical writings because that would not conform to their theological biases. The Bible Study literature is full of articles concerning how to justify translating Hebrew and Greek to fit Christian theological biases. There are lots of forums and blogs discussing mistranslations in the KJB and NIV bibles as part of the fundamentalist bible wars. "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION: ACCURACY AND BIAS IN ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS OF THE NEW TESTAMENT (or via: amazon.co.uk)" Author: Jason David BeDuhn he compares various Bible translations to the Greek for accuracy. He says, most of the time the NWT is the most accurate, but he has an appendix explaining why Yahweh should not be translated into Jehovah. In Hebrew, the first line of Geneses says "the gods made heaven and earth" - there is no monotheism or creation in Geneses. Then the same word is translated messiah in possible prophesies about Jesus, but for everyone else its translated as anointed. The Greek NT does not say anywhere that Jesus was crucified. It says he was staked (either hung on a pole or staked to the ground) Crucifixion is something Jerome invented when he translated the Greek NT into Latin. The only version that we have of the Septuagint contains Christian interpolations. Nobody even knows when "young women" became "virgin". |
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03-14-2008, 11:27 PM | #19 | ||
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Anyone who can not overcome their biases to seek the truth, is of course unqualified. Yet almost everyone specializing in this area is a Christian who is incapable of overcoming their biases. |
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03-15-2008, 12:38 AM | #20 | ||
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I was aware of the young women to virgin change but not of the no crucifixion in the Greek NT. Do other contemporary Greek sources use another word for the Roman practice? I am not a linguist so please reply in a way that a lay person can understand. I was also aware of the Hebrew word messiah meaning annointed but not that it was deliberately used only in translation in the way you describe. If this is true you must do an analysis of the texts. Such a deliberate and planned deception should be exposed immediately. Did you mean to say that the correct translation of the Genesis passage is gods not god? Please do a simple to understand explanation of this. If what you say is verifiable this amounts to a conspiracy. A conspiracy that is actually true is a rarity but when it happens it usually leads to a definitive shift in any system. |
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