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Old 10-07-2008, 07:25 AM   #141
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sschlichter doesn't seem to acknowledge that, whatever actually happened in the 1st C, by the 2nd C, later generations of gentile Christians felt justified in editing the old documents to reflect their reality: a non-Jewish salvation movement without the end-of-the-world urgency of the first generation of Judeans.

There are no "inerrant" texts because the originals are long gone, and their descendants were revised without guilt by Christian scribes.
correct. I do not acknowledge that at all. I will if you can prove it to me. Give me the book and the date and the method you used to prove it was later editted. Without proof, I would have to accept that on faith, I am sure you would not want me to do that.

~Steve
I appreciate your honesty. I'm not a scholar, but the last two centuries have seen a lot of work in this direction. The idea that the NT books we have are basically the same as the originals is no longer accepted by academics. I suspect even Catholic scholars were coming to this realization before the Reformation.
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Old 10-07-2008, 02:36 PM   #142
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Even if Jesus held the faith of both Jews and Gentiles in high regard, this still does not provide evidence that Jesus made a new covenant with uncircumcised and lawless Gentiles. Due to the legality of his laws, it was impossible for Jesus the Jew to override commandments already established and established for the purpose of maintaining the identity of Jews/Israel.

Concerning the conspiracy of Jesus, his was the conspiracy in overturning the ruling party at Jerusalem and seating himself on the throne of David (at the right hand of God). Jesus promotes himself as the way, truth and life and one and the same with his father. His testimony against the Pharisees, Sadducees, and Herod[the fox], cast them as children of the devil.

As to the Gentiles, Jesus spoke against them per his laws. His testimony as a Jew would have necessarily been against uncircumcised and lawless people. Jesus excluded Gentiles due to his laws that prohibited Gentiles from entering the kingdom of God. The idol worshiping Gentiles, uncircumcised in flesh and heart, and not ever having been given the laws of Moses, were always spoken against and never considered as a people of God.

The laws of Israel confined Jesus to his Jewish people, his Judaism. He had no power or authority outside his own religious tradition. Jesus could not take his laws to Rome and demand that Caesar convert to Judaism and Roman citizens begin slaughtering lambs in observance of the Jewish passover, and this why Jesus said he was sent to none but the lost sheep in the house of Israel. But he could make testimony against the Gentiles to warn his Jewish brethren that they should not go in the way of the Gentiles. The Jewish way of doing things was quite a bit different.
Not if, he DID praise and reward faith from Jews and Gentiles. You said earlier that Jesus said adherence to the law was the way, truth, and life. I am glad to see that you now acknowledge that he was referring to himself. He also claimed to be the one who cut the covenant with Abraham and had the right to remind the Jews of its desired outcome.
(John 8:56) Your father Abraham was overjoyed to see my day, and he saw it and was glad."
(John 8:57) Then the Judeans replied, "You are not yet fifty years old! Have you seen Abraham?"
(John 8:58) Jesus said to them, "I tell you the solemn truth, before Abraham came into existence, I am!"
In Matt 15 where you are alluding to, is where a Gentile women's faith was praised and she was healed. As he was sent, he also sent the disciples to the Gentiles to be a witness to them. Why do you allude to the fact that Jesus was sent by God and not that the disciples were sent by Jesus. Is it easier for you to beleive that Jesus was sent by God or that Jesus the man sent the disciples?

~Steve

How could Jesus reward Gentiles when he wasn't even sent to them? His purpose was not in saving the idol worshiping Gentiles but the lost sheep in the house of Israel. He may have acknowledged faith of Gentiles as being more than what some of the Jews showed in their hypocrisy, but still, there is no indication of Jesus having made a new covenant with Gentiles. Jesus could not avoid the laws he was part of in his Jewish tradition, and especially for catering to idol worshiping Gentiles.

I made the point that Jesus believed his doctrine was the way, truth and life in his Judaism. And, evidently his doctrinal belief was different than his Jewish brethren in Pharisees and Sadducees, else they would not have been debating their laws. Jesus in debate with the Pharisees referred to their doctrine as "your law". The Pharisees may have been teaching from the Babylonian Talmud while Jesus was teaching from Torah scripts[Jerusalem Talmud?]

Sorry, Jesus didn't cut the covenant with Abraham. His saying "before Abraham was I am" was most probably in reference to the original priesthood in Melchezidek, where there was no law established, no covenants. However, as the priesthood evolved it took on certain aspects that entailed commandments from God, two of which were circumcision and laws of Moses. These as two witnesses stand before God in identity of Israel which separated Israel from other nations in its own independent state.

No, Jesus did not send his disciples to the Gentiles. Peter began that episode and Paul expanded its reach.

It's easier for me to believe that this bible story is nothing more than a bloody religion whose victims were both man and beast. Aside from that, I read the NT story as saying that Jesus came out of nowhere and declared himself God in the flesh, and for the express purpose of overthrowing the ruling party of Pharisees at Jerusalem.

The reason I say Jesus came out of nowhere is this: He has no mention by name or prophet in the OT story. God maintains preeminence without savior, mediator, god-man, messiah, and because God stands alone.
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Old 10-07-2008, 02:47 PM   #143
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I appreciate your honesty. I'm not a scholar, but the last two centuries have seen a lot of work in this direction. The idea that the NT books we have are basically the same as the originals is no longer accepted by academics. I suspect even Catholic scholars were coming to this realization before the Reformation.
I think we should distinguish here.
Our best critical texts of the NT books doubtless have a number of (mostly minor) differences from the originals.
On the other hand. There seems no good reason to hold that they are not basically the same as the originals (If you mean by originals the earliest generally circulated version)

Andrew Criddle
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Old 10-07-2008, 08:19 PM   #144
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I appreciate your honesty. I'm not a scholar, but the last two centuries have seen a lot of work in this direction. The idea that the NT books we have are basically the same as the originals is no longer accepted by academics. I suspect even Catholic scholars were coming to this realization before the Reformation.
I think we should distinguish here.
Our best critical texts of the NT books doubtless have a number of (mostly minor) differences from the originals.
On the other hand. There seems no good reason to hold that they are not basically the same as the originals (If you mean by originals the earliest generally circulated version)

Andrew Criddle

What then were the earliest generally circulated originals scripted from? If Jewish scripts, which ones were considered as valid to be used by the church? Which Jewish scripts were altogether left out? How much oral storytelling (progaganda, heresay), went into creating the scripts for the church?

In the NT story, Jesus and his apostles did their thing in revisionist fashion and declared "so that the scripture[of the old prophet sayings] might be fulfilled" in their time. This seems to be the same method used by the church in their creativity and development of their own books a few hundred years later.

Later, the Protestants thought they knew a better truth and so threw out a few books and revised what they kept. Today the revisionists are doing the same as seen in the many versions of the bible. Does anyone study truth? No, they by reason study heresay, propaganda, fables and myth. All developed by men. Men who thought their way was the truth and the way for people to live. And of course, there have alwayss been objections and rightly so. Else the critics and skeptics and atheists would not have been able to drag the centuries of fundamentalists extremists kicking and screaming into the next generations. If things had been left to the religious extremists we'd still be slapping blood and guts on doorposts, practicing the most vile and contemptible offering to a psychopatic thunder god and stoning our children.

:wave:
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Old 10-08-2008, 10:51 AM   #145
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I appreciate your honesty. I'm not a scholar, but the last two centuries have seen a lot of work in this direction. The idea that the NT books we have are basically the same as the originals is no longer accepted by academics. I suspect even Catholic scholars were coming to this realization before the Reformation.
I think we should distinguish here.
Our best critical texts of the NT books doubtless have a number of (mostly minor) differences from the originals.
On the other hand. There seems no good reason to hold that they are not basically the same as the originals (If you mean by originals the earliest generally circulated version)

Andrew Criddle
Well, at the least I think we have to acknowledge that any Jewish-Christian documents surviving from the 1st C would have been updated afterward to reflect the majority of Gentiles in the movement. The appearance of Marcion's canon seems to have spurred either revisions or fabrications of foundation documents, especially the Pauline corpus. Competition with Gnosticism seems to have stimulated a refinement of Catholic doctrine.
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Old 10-08-2008, 10:59 AM   #146
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Does anyone study truth? No, they by reason study heresay, propaganda, fables and myth. All developed by men. Men who thought their way was the truth and the way for people to live.
I suspect 'twas ever thus my friend. Before the Bible there were Egyptian god-kings.

People WANT to believe, and there are always those willing to oblige them with the right story or rulebook. It hasn't changed today; in your town there are probably more bookstores selling occult and conspiracy literature than biblical.
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Old 10-08-2008, 12:30 PM   #147
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Does anyone study truth? No, they by reason study heresay, propaganda, fables and myth. All developed by men. Men who thought their way was the truth and the way for people to live.
I suspect 'twas ever thus my friend. Before the Bible there were Egyptian god-kings.

People WANT to believe, and there are always those willing to oblige them with the right story or rulebook. It hasn't changed today; in your town there are probably more bookstores selling occult and conspiracy literature than biblical.

You may be right. But, if memory serves me correctly, anything not written by Tim Lahaye, Hal Lindsey, Dobson, Falwell, etc. wasn't to be found. Bible sales doesn't seem to ring up the big bucks as people go for the thrill of end times prophecies proven by an assorted array of scripture verses to validate the writers expertise in theology.
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Old 10-08-2008, 12:41 PM   #148
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Well, at the least I think we have to acknowledge that any Jewish-Christian documents surviving from the 1st C would have been updated afterward to reflect the majority of Gentiles in the movement. The appearance of Marcion's canon seems to have spurred either revisions or fabrications of foundation documents, especially the Pauline corpus. Competition with Gnosticism seems to have stimulated a refinement of Catholic doctrine.
Coud you give examples/evidence of what you are saying ?
I don't think I agree but I'm not sure exactly what you are claiming.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 10-08-2008, 01:08 PM   #149
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Well, at the least I think we have to acknowledge that any Jewish-Christian documents surviving from the 1st C would have been updated afterward to reflect the majority of Gentiles in the movement. The appearance of Marcion's canon seems to have spurred either revisions or fabrications of foundation documents, especially the Pauline corpus. Competition with Gnosticism seems to have stimulated a refinement of Catholic doctrine.
Coud you give examples/evidence of what you are saying ?
I don't think I agree but I'm not sure exactly what you are claiming.

Andrew Criddle
Here's a tidbit from Wiki:
-----
Main article: Marcionism
Marcionism is the dualist belief system that originates in the teachings of Marcion around the year 144. Marcion affirmed Jesus Christ as the saviour sent by God and Paul as his chief apostle. Marcion declared that Christianity was distinct from and in opposition to Judaism. He rejected the entire Hebrew Bible, and declared that the God of the Hebrew Bible was a lesser demiurge, who had created the earth, and whose law, the Mosaic covenant, represented bare natural justice i.e. eye for an eye.

The premise of Marcionism is that many of the teachings of Christ are incompatible with the actions of Yahweh, the God of the Old Testament. Tertullian claimed Marcion was the first to separate the New Testament from the Old Testament. Focusing on the Pauline traditions of the Gospel, Marcion felt that all other conceptions of the Gospel were opposed to the truth. He regarded Paul's arguments of law and gospel, wrath and grace, works and faith, flesh and spirit, sin and righteousness and death and life as the essence of religious truth. He ascribed these aspects and characteristics as two principles: the righteous and wrathful God of the Old Testament, the creator of the world, and a second God of the Gospel who is purely love and mercy and who was revealed by Jesus.

His canon consisted of eleven books: his own version of the Gospel of Luke, and ten of Paul's epistles. All other epistles and gospels of the New Testament were rejected.
-----
I'd have to have my copy of The Pre-Nicene New Testament in front of me to get other references. The basic point is that Catholics wanted to keep the connection with the Jewish scriptures.
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Old 10-08-2008, 01:21 PM   #150
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Here's a tidbit from Wiki:
-----
Main article: Marcionism
Marcionism is the dualist belief system that originates in the teachings of Marcion around the year 144. Marcion affirmed Jesus Christ as the saviour sent by God and Paul as his chief apostle. Marcion declared that Christianity was distinct from and in opposition to Judaism. He rejected the entire Hebrew Bible, and declared that the God of the Hebrew Bible was a lesser demiurge, who had created the earth, and whose law, the Mosaic covenant, represented bare natural justice i.e. eye for an eye.

The premise of Marcionism is that many of the teachings of Christ are incompatible with the actions of Yahweh, the God of the Old Testament. Tertullian claimed Marcion was the first to separate the New Testament from the Old Testament. Focusing on the Pauline traditions of the Gospel, Marcion felt that all other conceptions of the Gospel were opposed to the truth. He regarded Paul's arguments of law and gospel, wrath and grace, works and faith, flesh and spirit, sin and righteousness and death and life as the essence of religious truth. He ascribed these aspects and characteristics as two principles: the righteous and wrathful God of the Old Testament, the creator of the world, and a second God of the Gospel who is purely love and mercy and who was revealed by Jesus.

His canon consisted of eleven books: his own version of the Gospel of Luke, and ten of Paul's epistles. All other epistles and gospels of the New Testament were rejected.
-----
I'd have to have my copy of The Pre-Nicene New Testament in front of me to get other references. The basic point is that Catholics wanted to keep the connection with the Jewish scriptures.
You claimed
Quote:
The appearance of Marcion's canon seems to have spurred either revisions or fabrications of foundation documents, especially the Pauline corpus.
I can't see anything in the passage you quoted from Wikipedia which supports this claim.

Andrew Criddle
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