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Old 12-08-2008, 06:39 AM   #51
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And is there a difference between "on the third day" and "after the third day"? Does it make any difference in interpreting the text?
If something occurs "after the third day" what day does it occur on? ?? ???
time, times,....
The fourth, fifth, sixth, seventh...?

Actually, that is a bit of a linguistic question, one I am unfamiliar with. In English, we have used "on" as in "On Sunday" to indicate a definite time, but "after" to indicate either definite or indefinite "After Saturday" could indicate either "on Sunday", or "any day from Sunday and later". When translating them into these terms, are these concepts followed, or is the language more fluid than that? Another question is whether the terms for "day" referred to a 24-hour period or the time of daylight? That could change the meaning of "on the third day/after the third day" as well (this ties into the start of the day idea).

Of course, the discovery of this pre-Christian idea of a resurrecting savior after three days may explain this element as well. Another idea to consider would be the influence of other religious ideas of the time. Does anyone know of any pagan beliefs that included the three-day motif?
The Jewish religion and its practitioners were quite particular about such matters, it being particularly relevant in the day to day operations of The Temple of YHWH, and with scheduling of the eating of the "shewbread"
and of the Priesthood's schedule of "courses" in "coming in" and "going out" by order, as detailed in ha' Torah, and as interpreted by the Priestly judges under that authority.

However loosely moderns might choose to interpret the restrictions of Laws of the Jews, they were not so loosely interpreted in those days, nor loosely enforced upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem and its environs.
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Old 12-08-2008, 07:53 AM   #52
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I don't see how a lunar calendar would have any effect. Perhaps, if you have a working idea, you might explain.

I think if one counted from sunset, then Jesus was plainly in the ground a day and a half (rather than a full day and bits of two others), so it should be clear that a change for clarity from "after three days" to "on the third day" would not have convinced anyone under the Pharisaic evening to evening day.
Note that gJn seems to crucify Jesus on a Thursday (I realize attempts have been made to explain this away), IMO displaying another sign of a tradition more primitive than gMk (though of course interpretations may vary). A Thursday crucifixion would arguably provide a literal three days between the crucifixion and the resurrection. My guess is that in this case, the LA and the Johannine PN would have developed independently of one another. Then, aMark recombined the separate traditions.
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Old 12-08-2008, 08:38 AM   #53
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I don't see how a lunar calendar would have any effect. Perhaps, if you have a working idea, you might explain.
Prof. Alvar Ellegård explains how the disciples would be able to find a man, supposedly an Essene following a lunar calendar, who had an already cooked lamb in Luke 22:10-13, as it would be an anomaly according to SOP.
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Old 12-08-2008, 09:29 AM   #54
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Hi Cave,

This is a very important observation that the LA and PN are later add ons. Once we realize this, we have to ask why Mark chose to end his gospel with Jesus' prediction of the overthrow of the Temple at 13.1-2.

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13.1 As He was going out of the temple, one of His disciples said to Him, “Teacher, behold what wonderful stones and what wonderful buildings!” 2 And Jesus said to him, “Do you see these great buildings? Not one stone will be left upon another which will not be torn down.”


Why does the text end on this dramatic note of a prediction that evryone knows came true? In my opinion the answer is that the text that Mark was copying ended here. If we assume that the text that Mark was working from was about Jesus, we wonder why Mark or anyone would end right there with a prophesy which had already been fulfilled. The point was to show what a great propet Jesus was. Of course, as the savior/son of God, it is silly to end a text by making this point about Jesus. It makes sense to end the original text this way if it was about John. We may propose that the text that the primary text that Mark was using was about John and he was primary interested in changing it to be about Jesus.

A key proof of this comes at 11:27

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27 They came again to Jerusalem. And as He was walking in the temple, the chief priests and the scribes and the elders came to Him, 28 and began saying to Him, “By what authority are You doing these things, or who gave You this authority to do these things?” 29 And Jesus said to them, “I will ask you one question, and you answer Me, and then I will tell you by what authority I do these things. 30 “Was the baptism of John from heaven, or from men? Answer Me.” 31 They began reasoning among themselves, saying, “If we say, ‘From heaven,’ He will say, ‘Then why did you not believe him?’ 32 “But shall we say, ‘From men’?”—they were afraid of the people, for everyone considered John to have been a real prophet. 33 Answering Jesus, they said, “We do not know.” And Jesus said to them, “Nor will I tell you by what authority I do these things.”
Notice that the question that the authorities ask is "Who gave you the authority to do these things?" It is senseless for Jesus to bring up John's baptism at this point. If he does, the authorities can say to him something like, "Certainly, John's Baptism was from God, but you're not John. We asked about your authority." Jesus might come back with "John baptized me." But they can say, "Big deal, he baptized thousands of people. You're no different from them." As it stands now in the passage, the statement of Jesus in bringing up John and the statement of the authorities in refusing to pronounce a judgment on John's baptism does not make sense.

We may presume that the original made sense. It only makes sense if the original character in the passage was John himself:
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27 They came again to Jerusalem. And as He was walking in the temple, the chief priests and the scribes and the elders came to Him, 28 and began saying to Him, “By what authority are You doing these things, or who gave You this authority to do these things?” 29 And John Jesus said to them, “I will ask you one question, and you answer Me, and then I will tell you by what authority I do these things. 30 “Was my the baptism of John from heaven, or from men? Answer Me.” 31 They began reasoning among themselves, saying, “If we say, ‘From heaven,’ He will say, ‘Then why did you not believe him?’ 32 “But shall we say, ‘From men’?”—they were afraid of the people, for everyone considered John to be have been a real prophet. 33 Answering John Jesus, they said, “We do not know.” And John Jesus said to them, “Nor will I tell you by what authority I do these things.”
In this, its original form, the statements of the characters now make perfect sense. The authorities are afraid of the people who John is leading and they do not want to antagonize them and that is why they do not press him further on the issue when he brings up his baptism.

So both 13:1-2 and 11:27-33 indicate that John was the original subject and main character in the text. Once we understand that Mark is following an earlier Johannine text, and changing the sayings of John into the sayings of Jesus, the deconstruction of the gospels become a lot easier.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay



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I'll withdraw the statement from the discussion and ask for it to be disregarded as it is not important to the discussion of the after three days/on the third day change.
I do think it's an interesting idea in its own right, however. But I have a hard time getting completely on board with it, as the idea that gMk originally ended with chapter 13, and that the remainder of the PN is tacked on, seems too incongruous--Jesus has already arrived in Jerusalem, has already predicted the fall of the temple, etc., and so the termination of the gospel with chapter 13 is anticlimactic. I don't dispute that there is a change in style and narrative technique. But if chapter 13 and the PN are not originally by the same hand, there must be a more complicated solution than simply saying the PN was an addition to an already-existing gospel.

Instead, I think that the Little Apocalypse (LA) and the PN are both evidence that gMk is a composite document, originally based off of at least one (or more) prior works, whether literary or oral. IMO the sense the reader gets of arriving at a narrative climax with the LA is evidence that gMk is a re-working of an older narrative, one which did not precisely mirror the order of gMk.

Notice that the narrative element which just precedes the LA is the entry into Jerusalem--and that this happens to be the most notable example of gJn deviating from the narrative order in gMk, suggesting that either aMark or aJohn has been doing some rearranging (and let me suggest that it was aMark who did the rearranging, not aJohn as has been traditionally suggested). Next note that gJn has no LA--instead, it features a public discourse in Jerusalem, and a longer private one during aJohn's version of the Last Supper. This suggests that Mark and John were both adding material to a smaller narrative core. And note also that the narrative element which just follows the LA is the Last Supper (LS)--again presenting one of the notable deviations of gJn from gMk's narrative (in gJn, there is no institution of the eucharist, and the footwashing is entirely absent from the other gospels).

Finally, notice that gMk and gJn also deviate on a key element in the LS narrative--in gMk, Judas is bribed to betray Jesus, whereas in gJn he is simply possessed by Satan to betray him. Once again I feel compelled to refer to the account in the Slavonic Josephus, where it is Pilate, not Judas, who is bribed in order to crucify Jesus.

As for spin's observation about the "three days", I think this is accurate--there was a tradition earlier than gMk where Jesus was said to have been raised "after three days", and which featured some sort of LA tradition--but which did not feature a PN. My guess is it looked something like a proto-Q, or an alternate Q. I'm not even sure it was a literary source. But it did have an ending, and the ending was the LA--which has been spliced into a narrative gospel, containing a PN, that served as a source for both gMk and gJn. aMark used the LA, but aJohn did not. This particular Markan source knew that the Son of Man had died and been raised--but did not have the story of how it happened.

And briefly getting back to something I mentioned at the beginning--why do I suggest that it was aMark who rearranged the narrative order, rather than aJohn? Because in the Slavonic Josephus, Jesus is arrested by Pilate--but then released, only to be arrested a second time. I suggest that aMark has telescoped this narrative into a single arrest, whereas aJohn preserves some of the original order.
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Old 12-09-2008, 12:56 AM   #55
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Would this have been a result of an original tradition based on a lunar calender, or at least seeing the beginning of each day as sunset?
I don't see how a lunar calendar would have any effect. Perhaps, if you have a working idea, you might explain.

I think if one counted from sunset, then Jesus was plainly in the ground a day and a half (rather than a full day and bits of two others), so it should be clear that a change for clarity from "after three days" to "on the third day" would not have convinced anyone under the Pharisaic evening to evening day.


spin
First, I am working in English, and I admit the pitfall there.

Second, I am using Mark 8:31 because 9:31 and 10:34 do not say to me, in various english translations, "after three days" but "on the third day". I'm going to defer to your judgement on the latter two and go with 8:31.

Third, what I had in mind was that if mark was foreshadowing, then you have an allusion to a chain of events that begins during sunlight of a "first" day, a second day through evening, and into the morning of a third day.

Fourth, it seems clear to me that "after three days" could easily mark a timeframe longer than three days (any minute on the fourth day would be after three days) while "on the third day" clearly means less than four.

With that in mnd, if aMatt were accurizing the timeline in accordance with Pharisaic tradition, wouldn't he see it as a logical rewording? I am assuming so much here i know, that aMatt is not only drawing from gMark but also rewording it, among other things.

It really isn't a problem for me, just like I don't try and see a problem with Solomon's vessel being round and violating the ratio of pi. It is just descriptive literature, not a scientific treatise. At least to me.

On the other hand, I am reminded of someone may get confused reading he firing instructions of the Holy Hand Grenade of Antioch...

1...2...5
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Old 12-09-2008, 12:58 AM   #56
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I don't see how a lunar calendar would have any effect. Perhaps, if you have a working idea, you might explain.

I think if one counted from sunset, then Jesus was plainly in the ground a day and a half (rather than a full day and bits of two others), so it should be clear that a change for clarity from "after three days" to "on the third day" would not have convinced anyone under the Pharisaic evening to evening day.
Note that gJn seems to crucify Jesus on a Thursday (I realize attempts have been made to explain this away), IMO displaying another sign of a tradition more primitive than gMk (though of course interpretations may vary). A Thursday crucifixion would arguably provide a literal three days between the crucifixion and the resurrection. My guess is that in this case, the LA and the Johannine PN would have developed independently of one another. Then, aMark recombined the separate traditions.

ahh, Johannine Priority.

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Old 12-09-2008, 03:57 AM   #57
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I don't see how a lunar calendar would have any effect. Perhaps, if you have a working idea, you might explain.

I think if one counted from sunset, then Jesus was plainly in the ground a day and a half (rather than a full day and bits of two others), so it should be clear that a change for clarity from "after three days" to "on the third day" would not have convinced anyone under the Pharisaic evening to evening day.


spin
First, I am working in English, and I admit the pitfall there.


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Originally Posted by Casper View Post
Second, I am using Mark 8:31 because 9:31 and 10:34 do not say to me, in various english translations, "after three days" but "on the third day". I'm going to defer to your judgement on the latter two and go with 8:31.
You should use a decent translation. I flagged 9:31 in the table above, as the Byzantine tradition does have "on the third day" against the Alexandrian "after three days". 10:34 is just KJV error.

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Third, what I had in mind was that if mark was foreshadowing, then you have an allusion to a chain of events that begins during sunlight of a "first" day, a second day through evening, and into the morning of a third day.

Fourth, it seems clear to me that "after three days" could easily mark a timeframe longer than three days (any minute on the fourth day would be after three days) while "on the third day" clearly means less than four.

With that in mnd, if aMatt were accurizing the timeline in accordance with Pharisaic tradition, wouldn't he see it as a logical rewording? I am assuming so much here i know, that aMatt is not only drawing from gMark but also rewording it, among other things.

It really isn't a problem for me, just like I don't try and see a problem with Solomon's vessel being round and violating the ratio of pi. It is just descriptive literature, not a scientific treatise. At least to me.

On the other hand, I am reminded of someone may get confused reading he firing instructions of the Holy Hand Grenade of Antioch...

1...2...5
My interest is not in any contradiction, but in the fact that there is a chronological implication, ie that "on the third day" post-dates "after three days" in the christian tradition. The latter was acceptable to the writer of Mark and apparently Q (the sign of Jonah, three days and three nights...), but not to the other synoptics. If "on the third day" comes chronologically after the writing of Mark which is several decades after 1 Corinthians, then what does one make of the use of "on the third day" in the creedal material in 1 Cor 15:4? I think the chronological implications are straightforward.


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Old 12-09-2008, 06:11 AM   #58
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I've always taken it as standard mythological motif based off as stated earlier the three days between the last and first crescent moon. It's used to symbolize rebirth or life over death or journey to and return from the underworld. That's not to imply the Gospel authors necessarily intended a direct association, they were merely using and extending a device already present in Jewish tradition. The Hebrew Bible is replete with magic events happening in threes, or on the third day, or after three days. Lots of journeys contain a "after three days they arrived at...". It would seem insignificant except the references are statistically high and by comparison you don't find examples of two, four, five day happenings.

If you check the full context of each example they all revolve around the culmination of some event or magical occurrence.

Gen 22:4 On the third day Abraham lifted up his eyes, and saw the place afar off.

Gen 30:36 Then he put a three-day journey between himself and Jacob, while Jacob continued to tend the rest of Laban's flocks.

Gen 31:22 On the third day Laban was told that Jacob had fled.

Gen 34:25 Three days later, while all of them were still in pain, two of Jacob's sons, Simeon and Levi, Dinah's brothers, took their swords and attacked the unsuspecting city, killing every male.

Gen 40:12 Then Joseph said to him, "This is its interpretation: the three branches are three days; within three days Pharaoh will lift up your head and restore you to your office; and you shall place Pharaoh's cup in his hand, just as you used to do when you were his cupbearer.

Gen 42:17 And he put them all together in prison for three days. On the third day Joseph said to them, "Do this and you will live, for I fear ha-Elohim:

Ex 2:2 The woman conceived and bore a son (Moses); and when she saw that he was a fine baby, she hid him three months. (Amplification of three days.)

Ex 3:18 They will listen to your voice; and you and the elders of Israel shall go to the king of Egypt and say to him, 'YHWH, the Elohim of the Hebrews, has met with us; let us now go a three days' journey into the wilderness, so that we may sacrifice to YHWH our Elohim.'

Ex 10:22 So Moses stretched out his hand toward the sky, and there was dense darkness in all the land of Egypt for three days.

Ex 15:22 They went three days in the wilderness and found no water.
When they came to Marah, they could not drink the water of Marah because it was bitter. That is why it was called Marah. (Then a miracle happens)

Ex 19:11 YHWH said to Moses: "Go to the people and consecrate them today and tomorrow. Have them wash their clothes and prepare for the third day, because on the third day YHWH will come down upon Mount Sinai in the sight of all the people. And he said to the people, "Prepare for the third day; do not go near a woman." On the morning of the third day Mount Sinai was wrapped in smoke, because YHWH had descended upon it in fire;

Num 10:33 So they set out from the mount of YHWH three days' journey with the ark of the covenant of YHWH going before them three days' journey, to seek out a resting place for them,

Num 22:28 Then YHWH opened the mouth of the donkey, and it said to Balaam, "What have I done to you, that you have struck me these three times?" (Balaam spoke on the third time)

Num 33:8 They set out from Pi-hahiroth, passed through the sea into the wilderness, went a three days' journey in the wilderness of Etham, and camped at Marah.

Josh 1:11 Pass through the camp, and command the people: 'Prepare your provisions; for in three days you are to cross over the Jordan, to go in to take possession of the land that YHWH your Elohim gives you to possess.'

Josh 2:11 She said to them, "Go toward the hill country, so that the pursuers may not come upon you. Hide yourselves there three days, until the pursuers have returned; then afterward you may go your way." (spies hiding at Jerico)

Josh 9:16 And Joshua made peace with them, guaranteeing their lives by a treaty; ... But when three days had passed after they had made a treaty with them, they heard that they were their neighbors and were living among them.

Judg 14:14 He said to them, "Out of the eater came something to eat. Out of the strong came something sweet." But for three days they could not explain the riddle. On the fourth day they said to Samson's wife, "Coax your husband to explain the riddle to us, or we will burn you and your father's house with fire. Have you invited us here to impoverish us?" (perplexed for three days, solved on the 4th. Samson means sun. He confused them for three days.)

Judg 20:30 Then the Israelites went up against the Benjaminites on the third day, and set themselves in array against Gibeah, as before.

1 Sam 9:20 As for your donkeys that were lost three days ago, give no further thought to them, for they have been found. And on whom is all Israel's desire fixed, if not on you and on all your ancestral house?" (Found after being lost for three days.)

1 Samuel 20. David hides from Saul for three days during the new moon festival.

1 Sam 20:1 Now when David and his men came to Ziklag on the third day, the Amalekites had made a raid on the Negeb and on Ziklag. They had attacked Ziklag, burned it down,

1 Sam 30:12 they also gave him a piece of fig cake and two clusters of raisins. When he had eaten, his spirit revived; for he had not eaten bread or drunk water for three days and three nights.

2 Sam 1:2 On the third day, a man came from Saul's camp, with his clothes torn and dirt on his head. When he came to David, he fell to the ground and did obeisance.

2 Sam 24:13 So Gad came to David and told him; he asked him, "Shall three years of famine come to you on your land? Or will you flee three months before your foes while they pursue you? Or shall there be three days' pestilence in your land? Now consider, and decide what answer I shall return to the one who sent me." (Three choices involving three.)

1 Kng 3:18 Then on the third day after I gave birth, this woman also gave birth. We were together; there was no one else with us in the house, only the two of us were in the house. (Solomon, the two women and the baby.)

1 Kng 18:34 He said, "Fill four jars with water and pour it on the burnt offering and on the wood." Then he said, "Do it a second time"; and they did it a second time. Again he said, "Do it a third time"; and they did it a third time, (pours water on the offering 3 times before performing a miracle.)

2 Kng 2:17. But when they urged him until he was ashamed, he said, "Send them." So they sent fifty men who searched for three days but did not find him. (looking for Elijah after he was taken up to the sky by YHWH i in a whirlwind.)

2 Kng 20:5 Turn back, and say to Hezekiah prince of my people, Thus says YHWH, the Elohim of your ancestor David: I have heard your prayer, I have seen your tears; indeed, I will heal you; on the third day you shall go up to the house of YHWH.

There's more in the prophets and psalms.

Also in Jonah 3:3 So Jonah set out and went to Nineveh, according to the word of YHWH. Now Nineveh was an exceedingly large city, a three days' walk across.
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Old 12-09-2008, 01:18 PM   #59
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Do you think maybe that if he does not rise on the third day he is gonne die? as Jonah did or at least wanted to in the end?
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Old 12-09-2008, 05:02 PM   #60
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Spin, who opened this thread, didn't just fall off the back of a turnip truck yesterday, he knows, as do most others here, that a "WORD STUDY" consist of much more than just clicking on some site and using your computers cut-and-paste function.
Do you know the original terms, and how they relate to other Hebrew idioms?
Your grasp of the authors intents by the usage of particular idioms is so superficial, that you have no grasp at all, with perhaps 99% of what you read (in English yet) passing right on over your head.
But as you are unaware of that fact, you expect everyone else to equally oblivious. pitiful
Spin is not so ignorant, maybe obstinate at times , but far from ignorant.
You asked a question...I answered it simply because I thought that's what you were asking.

I no longer wish to waste time with you.


Thanks,
E.L.B.
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