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06-10-2005, 07:46 AM | #11 | |
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One thing I have never understood about Christian evangelicals: if the text is as important to them as they say, why are they reading it in English? |
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06-10-2005, 08:23 AM | #12 | |
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06-10-2005, 01:51 PM | #13 | ||
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David Halivni's Peshat & Derash: Plain and Applied Meaning in Rabbinic Exegesis is one book relevant to the discussion. In it he contends that each of the different periods of rabbinic Judaism - Tannaitic, Amoraic, etc. - were characterized by mostly (though not absolutely) discrete exegetical points of view. He argues, e.g., that the tannaim had a notably different opinion as regards the integrity of the scriptural text than subsequent generations, even the amoraim, and especially us moderns. They had no qualms about reading meaning into the text as truly authentic, even nullifying on occasion what to us would likely be the plain meaning (the halakhah, e.g., sometimes follows the applied meaning, although it actually contradicts the plain sense of the text). Two remarks of his that may be of special interest to the thread are the following:
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Notsri |
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06-14-2005, 02:58 PM | #14 |
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Thanks everyone for bringing this sort of information to light. It is greatly appreciated. You have all given me places to go to try to get better grasp on the question.
If I may throw out one more thing. Is it the opinion of many who have just answered here in this thread that the various interpretations of the text did affect the actual practices of Judaism throughout these ages? (I think there was one example above.) Are there cases where we believe that Judaic practices varied apart from the rabbinic interpretations of the time? DC |
06-14-2005, 03:22 PM | #15 | |
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06-15-2005, 11:45 AM | #16 | |
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06-15-2005, 02:05 PM | #17 | |
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06-15-2005, 02:08 PM | #18 | |
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